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1. Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

Mexiletine

Aminodarone

Quinidine

Procainamide

2. Mechanism of resistance of sufentanil is:

Penicillin binding proteins (PBPs)

Decreased drug uptake by bacteria

Transport protein mutations

Tolerance

Mutation of viral DNA polymerase

3. Side effect of clindamycin is:

Colitis (by Chlostridium difficili)

Malabsorption

Constipation

Hypoglycemia

Hepatotoxicity

4. Cigarette smoke causes an increase in levels of CYP1A isozymes. Theophylline is primarily metabolized by the CYP1A system.

What would happen to theophylline clearance for an asthmatic patient in hospital who could not smoke?

No change

Increase

Decrease

5. What would be the preferred route of metabolism of succinyl choline?

Ester hydrolysis

N-oxidation

Glucuronide conjugation

A & B

All of the above

6. Which of the following is not directly related to a drug toxicity of Nitroglycerin?

Headaches

Tachycardia

Dizziness

Projectile vomiting

7. Mechanism of action of ampicillin is:

Inhibits cholesterol synthesis

Inhibits transpeptidase

Inhibits viral DNA polymerase

Potentiates glucose-mediated insulin secretion

Inhibits renal epithelial Na channels

8. Mechanism of action of cefoxitin is:

monoamine reuptake inhibitor

Inhibits cholesterol synthesis

Inhibits activation of GPIIb/IIIa

Inhibits transpeptidase

Inhibits Na-K-2Cl transporter

9. Which of the following causes the smallest change in solubility?

Hydroxylation

Glucuronidation

Sulfation

Glutathione conjugation

10. Indication of salmeterol is:

Thyrotoxicosis - preparation for surgery

Chronic renal disease

Scleroderma renal crisis

Asthma

Allergic rhinitis

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11. Indication of clindamycin is:

Benzodiazepine intoxication

Hypercalcemia

Kaposi's sarcoma

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Angina

12. Mechanism of action of vincristine is:

Inhibits organification of iodine by thyroid gland

Increases peripheral tissues sensitivity to insulin

Reduces peripheral insulin resistance

Inhibits Na-K-2Cl transporter

Mitotic spindle poison

13. Class of metformin is:

Lipid lowering drugs

Antimycobacterial

Thyroid agents

Vasodilators

Oral hypoglycemics

14. Which of the following is not related to a drug toxicity of Prednisone?

Cataracts

Hypotension

Psychosis

Acne

15. Effect of bisacodyl is:

Decreases total cholesterol by 8-12%

Decreases water absorption

Decreases total cholesterol by 20-50%

Enhances mucociliary clearance

Decreases triglycerides by 10-20%

16. Class of nystatin is:

Thiazides

Antiprotozoan agents

Autonomic nervous system drugs

Polyenes

Oral hypoglycemics

17. Site of metabolism of zolpidem is:

Liver

None

Reticuloendothelial system

Leukocytes

Unknown

18. Mechanism of action of amiloride is:

Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

Modulation of CD3 receptor from the cell surface

Inhibits renal epithelial Na channels

Aldosterone antagonist

Inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

19. Side effect of dipyridamole is:

Diarrhea

Headache

Bleeding

Hypercalcemia

Pseudothrombocytopenia (clumping of platelets)

20. Mechanism of resistance of Invirase is:

Mutation of viral DNA polymerase

Mutations of viral protease

Mutation of thymidilate synthase decreasing its affinity for the drug's active metabolite

Tolerance

Mutation of viral reverse transcriptase

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21. Indication of PTU is:

Glaucoma

Migraine prophylaxis

Thyrotoxicosis - preparation for radioactive iodine therapy

Severe recurrent ventricular tachyarrhythmias

Broad spectrum antibacterial agent

22. Indication of doxycycline is:

Bacteroides (other than Bacteroides fragilis)

Asthma

Meniere's disease

Water intoxication

Broad spectrum antibacterial agent

23. Side effect of furosemide is:

Nausea

Mucositis

Constipation

Hearing impairment

Weight gain

24. For highly polar drugs (e.g. mannitol) what primarily determines elimination rate?

Excretion rate

Metabolism rate

Absorption rate

Distribution rate

All of the above

25. Which of the following is the antidote for the toxin Benzodiazepines?

Flumazenil

Methylene blue

Deferoxamine

Alkalinize urine

26. Which of the following is the primary site of activity for the drug Warfarin?

Kidney

Liver

Blood

Heart

27. For the majority of drugs, which of the following equations correctly defines clearance?

Cl = Elimination rate/Cp

Cl = QxE

Cl = .7VD/t1/2

All are correct

28. Route of administration of interferon alpha is:

Intramuscular

Inhalation

Topical

Oral

Intra-auricular

29. Which of the following is not related to a drug toxicity of Atenolol?

CHF

Tachycardia

AV block

Sedative appearance

30. Which of the following statements refers to bretylium?

May induce mild hypotension and worsen congestive heart failure in some patients. However, most CHF patients can tolerate it.

Duration of action is usually several days.

Has been show to be more effective than six other agents in preventing arrhythmia recurrence and death in patients with ventricular tachyarrhythmias.

Is effective against erythrocytic forms.

Used in emergency setting during attempted resuscitation when lidocaine and cardioversion have failed.

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31. Indication of metoprolol is:

Bacteroides (other than Bacteroides fragilis)

Duodenal ulcer

Stage fright

Ventricular tachyarrythmias provoked by exercise

Cardiac arrest

32. Class of nelfinavir is:

Glucocorticosteroids

Anti-asthmatic agents

Polyenes

Antivirals

Autonomic nervous system drugs

33. Which of the following is not directly related to a drug toxicity of Ibuprofen?

Nausea

Renal dysfunction

Anemia

Muscle wasting

34. Indication of ticarcillin is:

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Varicella zoster virus

Myocardial infarction

Generalized motor seizures

Bone marrow failure states (aplastic anemia, myelodysplasias) (investigational)

35. Mechanism of action of doxorubicin is:

Inhibits topoisomerase II

alpha antagonist

Inhibits peptidyl transferase

beta antagonist

Allosterically enhances GABAergic inhibition

36. Indication of Norvir is:

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Cytomegalovirus retinitis

Diarrhea

Influenza A

HIV

37. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of hepatitis?

Valproic acid

Quinidine

Isoniazid

Ethosuximide

38. Indication of phenoxybenzamine is:

Pain

Movement disorders

Thyrotoxicosis - preparation for radioactive iodine therapy

Anaphylactic shock

Acute hypertension

39. Route of administration of methadone is:

Subcutaneous

Inhalation

Intrathecal

Oral

Transdermal

40. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Cinchonism?

Valproic acid

Quinidine

Isoniazid

Ethosuximide

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41. A drug ending in the suffix (azole. is considered a ______.

H2 agonist

ACE inhibitor

Antifungal

Beta agonist

42. A drug ending in the suffix (pril) is considered a ______.

H2 agonist

ACE inhibitor

Antifungal

Beta agonist

43. Mechanism of action of vancomycin is:

Potentiates glucose-mediated insulin secretion

Inhibits phospholipase C

Mitotic spindle poison

Inhibits transpeptidase

Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis

44. Interactions with other drugs of clonazepam is:

Lactose: increases absorption

meperidine

Tricyclic antidepressants: potentiate sedation

cis-platinum - augments nephrotoxicity

Oral contraceptives: inhibit metabolism

45. Mechanism of action of flunisolide is:

Inhibits DNA gyrase

Inhibits phosphodiesterase

Inhibits phospholipase A2

beta-2 agonist

Competitively inhibits H2 receptors

46. Class of demeclocycline is:

Analgesics

Inotropic agents

Penicillins

Antithyroid agents

Aquaretics

47. Lansoprazole is not used in which of the following cases?

Gastritis

Peptic Ulcers

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

Thalamus hypertrophy

48. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of extreme photosensitivity?

Digitalis

Niacin

Tetracycline

Fluoroquinolones

49. Effect of diltiazem is:

May increase heart rate

Decreases triglycerides by 10-20%

May decrease heart rate

Inhibits basal gastric acid secretion

Decreases AV conduction

50. Which of the following statements refers to phenelzine?

Mechanism of action probably involves N

Rapid IV infusion predisposes to neuromuscular paralysis.

May work when other antidepressants fail.

Long half-life.

MOA is inhibited irreversibly. Response occurs when >80% platelet MOA is inhibited.

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51. Mechanism of resistance of dicloxacillin is:

Decreased drug uptake by bacteria

Mutations in M (matrix) protein

Beta-lactamase

Penicillin binding proteins (PBPs)

Antibodies resulting from streptococcal infection

52. Mechanism of action of enalapril is:

serotonin reuptake inhibitor

Inhibits bone resorption

beta-2 agonist

Inhibits angiotensin converting enzyme

Induces "freezing" of initiation complex

53. Which of the following are similarities between Cytochrome P450 and MAO?

Both add oxygen from O2 to substrates and also form water

Both carry out direct heteroatom oxidations

Both carry out oxidative deaminations

Both carry out N-dealkylations

All of the above

54. Which of the following statements refers to etidronate?

Binds to DNA, preferentially to GC pairs. Inhibits RNA, DNA, and protein synthesis.

Human, pig, salmon, and eel calcitonins are available.

Is used for both therapy and prophylaxis of influenza

Bioavailability increases with administered dose.

Only approved by FDA for hypertension treatment.

55. Side effect of nedocromil is:

Growth retardation in children

Thiocyanate poisoning

Neuromuscular paralysis

Nausea

Dysphonia

56. Potassium sparing diuretics have the primary effect upon the _____ found in the kidney.

Proximal convoluted tubule

Loop of Henle

Collecting duct

Distal convoluted tubule

57. Which of the following enzymes could directly act on codeine?

Glucuronyl transferase

Sulfotransferase

Glutathione transferase

A & B

All of the above

58. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Tendon dyfunction?

Digitalis

Niacin

Tetracycline

Fluoroquinolones

59. Which Cytochrome P450 isozyme does not participate appreciably in drug metabolism?

CYP1A2

CYP2C9

CYP3A4

CYP51

All are drug metabolizing isoforms

60. Contraindication of indacrinone is:

Pregnancy

Hyperlipidemia

Diabetes

Diabetes mellitus

Hearing impairment

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61. Half-life of streptomycin is:

10-50 hours

8 hours

1 hour

16 hours

3-4 hours

62. A drug ending in the suffix (tidine. is considered a ______.

Antidepressant

Protease inhibitor

Beta antagonist

H2 antagonist

63. Mechanism of action of chlorthalidone is:

Mitotic spindle poison

Binds to ergosterol in cell membrane resulting in formation of pores.

Unknown

Induces "freezing" of initiation complex

Inhibits Na-Cl transporter

64. Class of pyrimethamine is:

Antifolates

Antivirals

Aquaretics

Autonomic nervous system drugs

H2 antagonists

65. Side effect of fluvastatin is:

Seizures

Skin rash

Nausea

Urinary tract complications

Myalgia

66. Indication of epinephrine is:

Post myocardial infarction

Asthma

Tremor

Trigeminal neuralgia

Neurosurgical anesthesia

67. Which of the following is the antidote for the toxin Lead?

Naloxone

Nitrite

CaEDTA

Dialysis

68. Indication of aspirin is:

Insomnia

Cyanide poisoning

Cardiac arrest

Inflammation

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

69. Class of buspirone is:

Anticonvulsants

Lipid lowering drugs

Beta blockers

Benzodiazepines

Sedatives

70. Mechanism of action of neomycin is:

Inhibits dihydropteroate synthetase

Blocks K channels

Blocks Na channels

Binds to 30S subunit of bacterial ribosome

Inhibits mycolic acid synthesis

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71. Interactions with other drugs of tramadol is?

beta-lactam antibiotics - synergism

Rifampin: stimulates metabolism

Phenytoin: stimulates metabolism

MAO inhibitors: increase hyperpyrexia, excitation, delirium, seizures.

Antihistamines: enhance analgesia

72. Class of cilastin is:

Azoles

ACE inhibitors

Retinoids

Dehydropeptidase I inhibitors

K sparing diuretics

73. Mechanism of action of isoetharine is:

Inhibits phosphodiesterase

Reduces calcium influx into neurons

Potentiates glucose-mediated insulin secretion

Inhibits phospholipase A2

beta-2 agonist

74. Class of famciclovir is:

NSAID

Antidepressants

Autonomic nervous system drugs

Antivirals

Oral hypoglycemics

75. Side effect of actinomycin D is:

Bronchospasm

Hypotension

GI toxicity

Oral and GI ulcers

Dysphonia

76. Class of reserpine is:

Anticoagulants

Methylxanthines

Inotropic agents

Antiarrhythmic agents

Autonomic nervous system drugs

77. Which of the following enzymes could metabolize ethanol?

Cytochrome P450

Alcohol Dehydrogenase

Glucuronyl Transferase

Sulfotransferase

All of the above

78. Mechanism of action of indinavir is:

beta-2 agonist

Inhibits RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

Inhibits reverse transcriptase

Inhibits viral protease

Stimulates lipoprotein lipase

79. Contraindication of sulfamethoxazole is:

Gout

Diabetes mellitus

Hyperlipidemia

Liver disease

Late pregnancy

80. dication of ciprofloxacin is:

In Tuberculosis

Migraine prophylaxis

Tricyclic antidepressant poisoning

Broad spectrum antibacterial agent

Asthma

Page 9 of 10

81. How much of a 10 mg dose of morphine reaches the systemic circulation given F = .24?

24mg

0.24 mg

2.4 mg

4.1 mg

82. Half-life of adenosine is:

70 days

7-20 hours

4 hours

2 hours

1-2 minutes

83. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Stevens-Johnson syndrome?

Valproic acid

Quinidine

Isoniazid

Ethosuximide

84. Mechanism of action of amyl nitrite is:

dopamine antagonist

Unknown

Holds water in stool

Potassium channel agonist

Stimulates guanylate cyclase

85. Given F = .24, what is the overall hepatic clearance of morphine if the above patient has portal hypertension such that their hepatic blood flow is reduced by ½? Assume the clearance value given in the previous question is entirely hepatic clearance.

30 L/hr/70 Kg

60 L/hr/70 Kg

120 L/hr/70 Kg

250 L/hr/70 Kg

86. Which of the following statements refers to buspirone?

Fatal overdosage rare unless taken with alcohol or other CNS depressants.

Choice between quinidine and disopyramide should be made based on side effects. In patients with AV conduction problems or quinidine-induced GI toxicity, disopyramide ought to be chosen. In patients with MI or anticholinergic side effects, quinidine is the agent of choice.

Less effective than tricyclics or ECT in unipolar depression.

Is metabolized to several substances with long (>24 hours) half lives. These do not contribute to anticonvulsant effect but do contribute to sedative effect.

No difference in effects between elderly and average population

87. Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

Propafenone

Disopyramide

Aminodarone

Quinidine

88. Class of nitrogen mustard is:

Aquaretics

Alkylating agents

Lipid lowering drugs

Drugs affecting calcium homeostasis

Antivirals

89. Effect of cascara is:

Decreases water absorption

Stimulates segmentation

Decreases meal-stimulated gastric acid secretion

May increase triglycerides

Afterload increase

90. Mechanism of action of FK506 is:

Reduces calcium influx into neurons

Inhibits calcineurin

Inhibits phospholipase C

Inhibits phospholipid synthesis

Induces DNA damage under anaerobic conditions

Page 10 of 10

91. Subclass of lomafloxacin is:

Fluoroquinolones

Calciferols

Beta-lactamase resistant penicillins

Aldosterone antagonists

92. Route of administration of ofloxacin is:

Intra-auricular

Sublingual

Oral

Intramuscular

93. Route of excretion of cinoxacin is:

Unknown

Kidneys

Intestines

Liver

94. Given that the VD = 230 L/70Kg and Cl = 60 L/hr/70 Kg for morphine, approximately how much of a 10 mg IV dose remains after 8 hr, given to a normal 70 Kg patient?

5 mg

2.5 mg

1.25 mg

625 mg

95. A drug ending in the suffix (navir) is considered a ______.

Antidepressant

Protease inhibitor

Beta antagonist

H2 antagonist

96. Mechanism of action of zalcitabine is:

Inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase

Inhibits reverse transcriptase

Inhibits DNA gyrase

Inhibits viral protease

Inhibits dihydropteroate synthetase

97. Which of the following statements refers to HPMPC?

Tricyclic.

Cytosine monophosphate analog

Works by accumulating in and changing pH of lysosomes.

Mild intrinsic sympathomimetic activity - does not decrease heart rate and contractility as much during exercise.

Metabolized in liver by P450.

98. Bioavailability is related to which of the following parameters, according to the equation F = 1 - E

Excretion

Elimination

Extraction Ratio

Enterohepatic Recycling

99. In a zero order elimination process, which of the following is true?

The removal of drug is independent of drug concentration

Cl = Elimination rate/Cp

t1/2 = .7VD/Cl

All are true

100. Which of the following Cytochrome P450 isozymes is responsible for the bulk of phase I metabolism?

CYP1A2

CYP2C9

CYP2D6

CYP3A4

CYP51