Test Prep MCQS Multiple-choice questions (MCQS) Prometric MCQS for general practitioner (GP) Doctor Online Training
Test Prep MCQS Online Training
The questions for MCQS were last updated at Apr 22,2024.
- Exam Code: MCQS
- Exam Name: Multiple-choice questions (MCQS) Prometric MCQS for general practitioner (GP) Doctor
- Certification Provider: Test Prep
- Latest update: Apr 22,2024
A 38-year-old man presents with acute infection of skin in the leg. Diagnosis of cellulitis has been made.
What should be prescribed?
- A . Ceftriaxone + Flucloxacillin
- B . Vancomycin + Metronidazole
- C . Metronidazole + Erythromycin
- D . Ceftriaxone + Terbinafine
- E . Penicillin + Flucloxacillin
E
Explanation:
Penicillin + Flucloxacillin. Cellulitis is usually caused by bacteria, such as staphylococci or streptoc are commonly present on the skin. So Penicillin + Flucloxacillin should be given.
A 28-year-old man presents with a 2 hours’ history of rapid palpitations. He feels a little light headed but is other exam: pulse=170 bpm and regular, BP=100/68 mmHg. He has had 2 similar episodes in the past.
What is the most disturbance?
- A . SVT
- B . VF
- C . A-fibrillation
- D . VT
- E . Ventricular-ectopic
A
Explanation:
Palpitation, light headedness with a tachycardia of 170 bpm that is regular are most likely a SVT.
A 29-year-old lady who is a bank manager is referred by the GP to the medical OPC due to a long history of tin in the joints. An autoimmune screen result showed smooth muscle antibodies positive.
What is the most appropriate investigation?
- A . Jejunal biopsy
- B . Thyroid function test
- C . Liver function test
- D . Serum glucose
- E . ECG
C
Explanation:
Autoimmune hepatitis. Definitive investigation is liver biopsy Steroid [start with high dose prednisolone]. Azathioprine is commonly added with steroid to reduce its dose as more side effects than azathioprine.
A 65-year-old man presents with significant weight loss and complains of cough, SOB and chest pain. Exam constricted, drooping of left eyelid.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A . Thoracic outlet syndrome
- B . Cervical rib
- C . Bronchogenic carcinoma
- D . Pancoast tumor
- E . Pneumonia
D
Explanation:
Pancoast tumor. Pancoast tumour is the apical lung cancer that is associated with destructive lesion thoracic inlet and involvement of the brachial plexus and cervical sympathetic nerves (the stellate ganglion) le horner’s syndrome.
A 26-year-old political refugee has sought asylum in the UK and complains of poor concentration. He keeps his family whom he saw killed in a political coup. He is unable to sleep and feels hopeless about his survival. But he is afraid to go out.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A . PTSD
- B . Acute stress disorder
- C . OCD
- D . Social phobia
- E . GAD
A
Explanation:
PTSD. Keep getting thoughts of his family disaster, insomnia, to avoid similar circumstances he is out these are suggestive of PTSD.
Victim of RTA came with multiple injuries to abdomen, chest and limbs. BP is 80/ 50. upper limb has upper third near amputation that bleeds profusely, what is your first thing to do:
- A . Tourniquet the limb to stop the bleeding
- B . Check the airway and breathing
- C . Five IV fluid
- D . Call orthopedic
B
Explanation:
As rule ABC also in description near amputation so difficult to make tourniquet enough which stops bleeding.
lady presents with hot flashes and other symptoms of menopause.
What is the treatment option?
- A . Topical estrogen
- B . Conbined Oral Contraceptive
- C . Biosphosphonate
- D . Raloxifen
- E . Hormone Replacement Therapy
40-year-old manual worker presents with a swelling in the groin. Exam: mass is found to be just above and l pubic tubercle. It is reducible. On applying pressure on the internal ring there is no cough impulse seen.
What probable diagnosis?
- A . Direct inguinal hernia
- B . Indirect inguinal hernia
- C . Femoral hernia
- D . Femoral aneurysm
- E . Strangulated hernia
B
Explanation:
Indirect inguinal hernia. [Swelling in the groin; mass just above and lateral to the pubic tubercle mea hernia. It is reducible. On applying pressure on the internal ring there is no cough impulse; it means the hernia through deep ring, and enters scrotum passing through the Superficial ring. That means it is indirect inguinal hernia.
During a basketball match, one of the players suddenly collapsed to the ground with coughing and SOB.
What choice?
- A . V/Q
- B . CTPA
- C . MRI
- D . CT scan
- E . CXR
E
Explanation:
CXR. Likely diagnosis is pneumothorax. So investigation of choice is CXR
A 27-year-old man presents with abdominal pain. He says his urine is dark. Exam: BP=160/105mmHg.
What is investigation?
- A . Urine microscopy
- B . Renal biopsy
- C . Urine protein
- D . US
- E . CT
D
Explanation:
US. Abdominal pain, Dark urine (hematuria and hypertension suggests ADPKD. The sensitivity of ult ADPKD1 is 99% for at-risk patients older than 20 years.
Latest MCQS Dumps Valid Version with 249 Q&As
Latest And Valid Q&A | Instant Download | Once Fail, Full Refund
