640-875 Online Training

1. What is the term that refers to a device that has no Customer Equipment directly connected to it in a Service Provider network?

2. DRAG DROP

3. DRAG DROP

4. DRAG DROP

5. Refer to the exhibit.





Host 3 on Network A is sending data to Host 8 on Network B.

Which address is the default gateway of Host 3?

6. The PE and CE interfaces are in the UP/UP state. The junior Network Engineer has validated Layer 3 functionality by pinging the adjacent interface, however the customer is unable to access the provider network.

What should be your next troubleshooting step?

7. What are two differences between WAN and LAN? (Choose two.)

8. Which of the following correctly pairs the dotted decimal subnet mask with the correct number of binary bits that represent the subnet mask?

9. What are two benefits of a star network topology? (Choose two.)

10. DRAG DROP

11. You are having problems browsing to http://www.cisco.com from your laptop that is running Windows. Your laptop is connected directly to a default gateway, which is a Cisco ISR G2 router.

Which four options are the basic troubleshooting steps that you should use to troubleshoot this issue? (Choose four.)

12. DRAG DROP

13. DRAG DROP

14. DRAG DROP

15. Which statement about IPv6 global unicast addresses is true?

16. Given the IP address 10.106.170.145 255.248.0.0, which three options are the subnet that this IP address belongs to, the host IP address range on this subnet, and the subnet broadcast IP address?

17. Given the IP address of 209.168.200.155/27, which two options are the subnet that this IP address belongs to and the subnet broadcast IP address? (Choose two.)

18. DRAG DROP

19. DRAG DROP

20. DRAG DROP

21. Which is a valid IPv6 Link Local address?

22. What is the size difference in bits between an IPv4 address and an IPv6 address?

23. DRAG DROP

24. Given the subnet of 209.165.201.0/27, which subnet range will make the most efficient use of the address block for connecting to customer edge devices?

25. Refer to the exhibit.





Given the Class C IP network of 192.168.1.0, using VLSM, which five subnets meet the requirements in the exhibit? (Choose five.)

26. Given a ring topology, which loop prevention mechanism provides the fastest reconvergence time after a link failure?

27. Which three of the following components must be elected before the Spanning Tree Protocol can converge in a switched LAN? (Choose three.)

28. Which three statements about the ARP function are true? (Choose three.)

29. Which statement about STP operations is true?

30. DRAG DROP

31. What two commands enable port security and allow the switch to dynamically learn the connected MAC address? (Choose two.)

32. DRAG DROP

33. Which Cisco IOS CLI command is used to verify the speed and duplex settings on the Fa0/1 port on a Cisco switch?

34. This show output is from the S7 Cisco Metro Switch and the PE7 Cisco ASR 9000 Series Router. Which configuration change(s) is/are needed to bring the S7 FastEthernet 0/2 interface into the up/up state?





*Mar 20 21:28:02.177: %ETHCNTR-3-HALF_DUX_COLLISION_EXCEED_THRESHOLD:

Collisions at FastEthernet0/2 exceed threshold. Considered as loop-back.

*Mar 20 21:28:02.177: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: loopback error detected on Fa0/2, putting Fa0/2 in err-disable state

*Mar 20 21:28:03.184: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/2, changed state to down

S7#show interface fa0/2

FastEthernet0/2 is down, line protocol is down (err-disabled)

Hardware is Fast Ethernet, address is e8ba.70b5.6c04 (bia e8ba.70b5.6c04)

MTU 1500 bytes, BW 10000 Kbit, DLY 1000 usec,

reliability 255/255, txload 1/255, rxload 1/255

Encapsulation ARPA, loopback not set

Keepalive set (10 sec)

Half-duplex, 10Mb/s, media type is 10/100BaseTX

input flow-control is off, output flow-control is unsupported

ARP type: ARPA, ARP Timeout 04:00:00

Last input 00:00:40, output 00:00:00, output hang never

Last clearing of "show interface" counters never

Input queue: 0/75/0/0 (size/max/drops/flushes); Total output drops: 0

Queueing strategy: fifo

Output queue: 0/40 (size/max)

5 minute input rate 0 bits/sec, 0 packets/sec

5 minute output rate 0 bits/sec, 0 packets/sec

484423 packets input, 39349929 bytes, 0 no buffer

Received 484423 broadcasts (167203 multicasts)

0 runts, 0 giants, 0 throttles

1 input errors, 0 CRC, 0 frame, 0 overrun, 0 ignored

0 watchdog, 167203 multicast, 0 pause input

0 input packets with dribble condition detected

972398 packets output, 128931949 bytes, 0 underruns

0 output errors, 46 collisions, 4 interface resets

0 babbles, 0 late collision, 0 deferred

0 lost carrier, 0 no carrier, 0 PAUSE output

0 output buffer failures, 0 output buffers swapped out

RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:PE7#show interfaces gi0/0/0/0

GigabitEthernet0/0/0/0 is down, line protocol is down

Interface state transitions: 4

Hardware is GigabitEthernet, address is 4055.392f.40a8 (bia 4055.392f.40a8)

Internet address is 192.168.107.70/24

MTU 1514 bytes, BW 100000 Kbit (Max: 100000 Kbit)

reliability 255/255, txload 0/255, rxload 0/255

Encapsulation ARPA,

Full-duplex, 100Mb/s, THD, link type is force-up

output flow control is off, input flow control is off

loopback not set,

ARP type ARPA, ARP timeout 04:00:00

Last input 00:00:00, output 00:00:35

Last clearing of "show interface" counters never

5 minute input rate 0 bits/sec, 0 packets/sec

5 minute output rate 0 bits/sec, 0 packets/sec

972551 packets input, 128953765 bytes, 729 total input drops

172486 drops for unrecognized upper-level protocol

Received 0 broadcast packets, 800781 multicast packets

0 runts, 0 giants, 0 throttles, 0 parity

0 input errors, 0 CRC, 0 frame, 0 overrun, 0 ignored, 0 abort

484545 packets output, 39360900 bytes, 0 total output drops

Output 317283 broadcast packets, 167262 multicast packets

0 output errors, 0 underruns, 0 applique, 0 resets

0 output buffer failures, 0 output buffers swapped out

4 carrier transitions

35. If a bridge port is in the non-designated state, which two statements about spanning-tree operations on this port are true? (Choose two.)

36. Which three physical lines can provide local or remote access to a Cisco router or switch? (Choose three.)

37. Refer to the exhibit.





Company 1 has merged with Company 2. Company 1 is using RIPv2 as its IGP and Company 2 is using EIGRP as its IGP. EIGRP also is running between R1 and R2 over the WAN link.

Which action must be taken to allow these two configurations?

The Company 1 RIP routes appear as external EIGRP routes within Company 2.

The Company 2 EIGRP routes appear as RIPv2 routes within Company 1.

38. Which two statements about classful or classless routing protocol operations are true? (Choose two.)

39. DRAG DROP

40. When EIGRP is enabled on Cisco IOS XR, which EIGRP feature is on by default?

41. Refer to the exhibit.





R1 and R2 are running RIPv1 for the 10.0.0.0 and 192.168.1.0 networks. No default or static routes have been configured on the routers.

Which two statements about this topology are true? (Choose two.)

42. According to RFC 2080, which routing protocol is compatible with IPv6?

43. DRAG DROP

44. CORRECT TEXT

45. A customer uses OSPF as their Customer Edge routing protocol and remote sites are reporting 10.0.0.0/8 in the routing tables.

What is most likely the mis-configuration in the redistribution?

46. The network administrator is using a Windows PC application that is called putty.exe for remote communication to a switch for network troubleshooting.

Which two protocols could be used during this communication? (Choose two).

47. With IPv6, for which purpose are router solicitation and router advertisement used?

48. Refer to the exhibit.





Which two statements about these partial Cisco IOS/IOS-XE configurations are true? (Choose two.)

49. Which IPv6 feature replaced and enhanced the IPv4 ARP functions?

50. Refer to the exhibit.





Which configuration is necessary to support this output?

51. A centralized DHCP server has been setup for customer use.

What command is required on the customer Switched Virtual Interface (SVI) to allow clients to receive addresses from this server?

52. Which two statements about IPv4 DHCP operations are true? (Choose two.)

53. What are three features present on both ICMPv4 and ICMPv6? (Choose three.)

54. A network administrator issues the who command on a Cisco router, which takes longer than usual to display the results.

Which two commands can be used to speed up the process? (Choose two.)

55. DRAG DROP

56. DRAG DROP

57. Which Cisco IOS XR command displays information about statically configured routes and their corresponding interface or next-hop?

58. Which Cisco IOS XR command presents a list of all interfaces, their Layer 3 address (if configured), and the status of the interface and protocol?

59. In Cisco IOS XR, which three operations is Admin mode used for? (Choose three.)

60. Which Cisco IOS XR CLI command can you use to determine if the firmware on any of the line cards on the Cisco ASR 9000 Series Router needs to be upgraded?

61. On Cisco IOS XR, for which purpose is the turboboot procedure used?

62. Which Cisco IOS XR CLI command displays the running state of each line card (including the fan tray) on the Cisco ASR 9000 Series Router?

63. Which three statements about Cisco IOS XR CLI operations are true? (Choose three.)

64. Which two statements about Cisco IOS XE operations are true? (Choose two.)

65. DRAG DROP

66. Which Cisco IOS XR command is involved in enabling remote access?

67. A network engineer has configured an interface with various commands including the no shutdown command on an IOS-XR device. Both sides of the interface have been validated and the cable has been tested.

Which command does the network engineer need to input?

68. Refer to the exhibit.





You want to enable these three actions:

- Enable the fa0/1 router's interface to obtain its interface IP address dynamically from a DHCP server.

- Enable the router to configure the next hop ip address of the default route automatically based on the DHCP response.

- Enable the router to act as the DHCP server for other clients connected to the router fa0/2 interface.

Which three Cisco IOS configurations must you use? (Choose three.)

69. You need to enable the "local-router" serial 0/0 connection to the "remote-router" to be authenticated using the "C!sco!23" password. The password cannot be sent in cleartext between the two routers. The "remote-router" has already been configured with all the required configurations.

Which four Cisco IOS configurations are necessary? (Choose four.)

70. DRAG DROP

71. Which two statements about Packet over SONET are true? (Choose two.)

72. DRAG DROP

73. Which component is integrated into the Cisco IPoDWDM interfaces?

74. A Passive Optical Network is a point-to-multipoint FTTx network architecture that relies on which of the following?

75. Which two commands can be used to enable LACP when configuring the interfaces for a 40 gigabit ether channel? (Choose two.)

76. DRAG DROP

77. Refer to the exhibit.





Based on the configurations shown, why is the serial link in up/down status?

78. Which feature is used to protect the control plane of the router?

79. Which statement about SSH is true?

80. Which two statements are correct regarding routing protocol authentication? (Choose two.)

81. Refer to the exhibit.





Which two statements are true regarding the following configuration?

82. What is a the best way to secure the route processor on a Cisco device?

83. Which best describes the relationship between user groups and task groups?

84. What is the Cisco IOS command that is used to prevent the route of the incoming traffic from an unknown network?

85. Which three statements about the Cisco IOS XR task-based user authorization method are true? (Choose three.)

86. Refer to the exhibit.





Which statement about this show command output is true?

87. Which three statements about Cisco Discovery Protocol operations on a Cisco ME3400 switch are true? (Choose three.)

88. Currently, a Cisco IOS XR router is configured to send IP SLA probes to a network management station that is acting as the IP SLA target device.

How can IP SLA measurement accuracy be improved and also provide additional statistics?

89. Refer to the exhibit.





Which three statements about this show output are true? (Choose three.)

90. Which two statements about Cisco IOS XR NTP configuration are true? (Choose two.)

91. Refer to the exhibit.





A network administrator is setting up a new core router to be a secondary NTP server.

What command would need to be added to NTP Client configuration shown?

92. Refer to the exhibit.





A new policy requires all configurations to be saved to flash and backed up to a TFTP server based off the hostname at 12:05am every day.

Based upon the configuration, which two commands are required to accomplish this? (Choose two.)

93. What is the measurement of the Cisco IP SLA Operation ICMP Pather Jitter?

94. Which two commands are required to enter enable mode on a console port without entering a password? (Choose two.)

95. What is the Cisco recommended way to secure SNMPv2 community strings?

96. What is the Cisco IOS command to export IPv6 flows to Collector 209.165.200.200/24?

97. Which layer of the OSI Model does Label Distribution Protocol operate at?

98. A network engineer has been provided subnet 209.165.202.128/27.

What is the last usable IP address in this network and what is the subnet mask?

99. On Switch 5, which command would configure VLAN 5 as root?

100. Which EIGRP feature in IOS, IOS-XE, and IOS-XR will prevent the EIGRP process from automatically forming a neighbor adjacency?

101. A Network Engineer configured NAT for external access but one individual at a time can access the external network.

What NAT feature will allow all internal devices to share the same NAT IP address?

102. Which command set is required to enable a remote SNMP query on an IOS-XR router?

103. What is the minimum version of DOCSIS that will support IPv6?

104. Which multiplexing technology has minimal impact to production traffic when changes are implemented to a live circuit?

105. A network administrator set-up AAA on a new router. While the TACACS server was down for maintenance, the administrator was still unable to login with the backup password.

Which keyword did the administrator leave off of the AAA configuration?

106. HOTSPOT

107. HOTSPOT

108. HOTSPOT

109. HOTSPOT

110. Given the IP address 172.16.170.15 255.255.224.0, which three options are the subnet that this IP address belongs to, the host IP address range on this subnet, and the subnet broadcast IP address? (Choose three.)

111. Refer to the exhibit.





Which two options are the number of broadcast domains and collision domains shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

112. Refer to the exhibit.





Which two options are the number of broadcast domains and collision domains shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

113. Which three IP addresses are valid for hosts that belong to the 10.152.0.0/13 subnet? (Choose three.)

114. Which type of IPv6 address does the ff00::/8 prefix denote?

115. Refer to the exhibit.





Robert is sending an instant message to Mary. The message will be broken into a series of packets that will traverse all network devices.

Which four options are the MAC and IP source and destination addresses that will populate these packets as they are forwarded from Router2 to Router1? (Choose four.)

116. Which Layer 2 WAN protocol uses DLCI as the virtual circuit identifier?

117. Which pair of mechanisms are often used together to allow dynamic routing over a secured site-to­site VPN tunnel?

118. DRAG DROP

119. Which Cisco router feature allows multiple independent routing table instances to co-exist within the same router at the same time?

120. Which three statements correctly describe DSL-based Internet services for residential users? (Choose three.)

121. Refer to the exhibit.





Which layer(s) of the TCP/IP model operates end-to-end (Host A to Host B)?

122. Which two applications require the network to have the least amount of jitter, delay, and packet loss? (Choose two.)

123. What is the default spanning-tree mode of an NNI port on a Cisco ME3400 switch?

124. Which two statements about transparent bridging operations are true? (Choose two.)

125. Refer to the exhibit.





According to this show output, what are sticky MAC addresses?

126. When two or more different routes exist to the same destination that have been learned from two different routing protocols, what does a router use to determine the best route?

127. Which two statements about NetFlow support on Cisco IOS XR are true? (Choose two.)

128. What are the four steps to enable SSH v1 and v2 server on Cisco IOS XR routers? (Choose four.)

129. Generally, which way is the fastest to open S3 and S4 service requests to the Cisco TAC?

130. Which SNMPv2/SNMPv3 operation is not supported in Cisco IOS XR software?

131. What is the result of using the Cisco IOS copy tftp: run command?

132. What is the SDH equivalent of the SONET STS-12 framing format?

133. What are the three RFC 1918 IPv4 private address ranges? (Choose three.)

134. With a distance vector routing protocol like RIPv1, when is a route in the routing table placed in the "possibly down" state?