100-105 Online Training

1. How does a switch differ from a hub?

2. What must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server?

3. How does TCP differ from UDP? (Choose two.)

4. A workstation has just resolved a browser URL to the IP address of a server.

What protocol will the workstation now use to determine the destination MAC address to be placed into frames directed toward the server?

5. Refer to the exhibit.





Host A is sending a packet to Host B for the first time.

What destination MAC address will Host A use in the ARP request?

6. The network manager has requested a 300-workstation expansion of the network.

The workstations are to be installed in a single broadcast domain, but each workstation must have its own collision domain. The expansion is to be as cost-effective as possible while still meeting the requirements.

Which three items will adequately fulfill the request? (Choose three).

7. What are two common TCP applications? (Choose two.)

8. Which method does a connected trunk port use to tag VLAN traffic?

9. Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? (Choose two.)

10. Refer to the exhibit.





SwitchA receives the frame with the addressing shown in the exhibit.

According to the command output also shown in the exhibit, how will SwitchA handle this frame?

11. Refer to the exhibit.





The exhibit is showing the topology and the MAC address table. Host A sends a data frame to host D.

What will the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?

12. Refer to the exhibit.





If the resume command is entered after the sequence that is shown in the exhibit, which router prompt will be displayed?

13. Refer to the exhibit.





Which default gateway address should be assigned to HostA?

14. Refer to the exhibit.





A network has been planned as shown.

Which three statements accurately describe the areas and devices in the network plan? (Choose three.)

15. Which two options will help to solve the problem of a network that is suffering a broadcast storm? (Choose two.)

16. Refer to the exhibit.





All devices attached to the network are shown.

How many collision domains are present in this network?

17. What does a host on an Ethernet network do when it is creating a frame and it does not have the destination address?

18. Refer to the exhibit.





The ports that are shown are the only active ports on the switch. The MAC address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch.

What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two.)

19. A switch has 48 ports and 4 VLANs.

How many collision and broadcast domains exist on the switch (collision, broadcast)?

20. Which address type does a switch use to make selective forwarding decisions?

21. Refer to the exhibit.





The MAC address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch.

What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two.)

22. On a Cisco switch, which protocol determines if an attached VoIP phone is from Cisco or from another vendor?

23. Refer to the exhibit.





What must be configured to establish a successful connection from Host A to switch SW-A through router RT-A?

24. A switch receives a frame on one of its ports. There is no entry in the MAC address table for the destination MAC address.

What will the switch do with the frame?

25. At which layer of the OSI model does the protocol that provides the information that is displayed by the show cdp neighbors command operate?

26. Which two characteristics apply to Layer 2 switches? (Choose two.)

27. Which two commands will display the current IP address and basic Layer 1 and 2 status of an interface? (Choose two.)

28. Which two characteristics describe the access layer of the hierarchical network design model? (Choose two.)

29. Refer to the topology and switching table shown in the graphic.





Host B sends a frame to Host C.

What will the switch do with the frame?

30. What is the purpose of assigning an IP address to a switch?

31. Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)

32. Which router command can be used to determine the status of Serial 0/0?

33. What is the subnet address of 172.16.159.159/22?

34. An administrator is working with the 192.168.4.0 network, which has been subnetted with a /26 mask.

Which two addresses can be assigned to hosts within the same subnet? (Choose two.)

35. Refer to the exhibit.





The internetwork is using subnets of the address 192.168.1.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224. The routing protocol in use is RIP version 1.

Which address could be assigned to the FastEthernet interface on RouterA?

36. What is the network address for the host with IP address 192.168.23.61/28?

37. What is the best practice when assigning IP addresses in a small office of six hosts?

38. Refer to the exhibit.





The enterprise has decided to use the network address 172.16.0.0. The network administrator needs to design a classful addressing scheme to accommodate the three subnets, with 30, 40, and 50 hosts, as shown.

What subnet mask would accommodate this network?

39. Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)

40. Given a Class C IP address subnetted with a /30 subnet mask, how many valid host IP addresses are available on each of the subnets?

41. Which one of the following IP addresses is the last valid host in the subnet using mask 255.255.255.224?

42. An administrator is in the process of changing the configuration of a router.

What command will allow the administrator to check the changes that have been made prior to saving the new configuration?

43. Which statements accurately describe CDP? (Choose three.)

44. On a live network, which commands will verify the operational status of router interfaces? (Choose two.)

45. Which router command will configure an interface with the IP address 10.10.80.1/19?

46. Refer to the exhibit.





If CDP is enabled on all devices and interfaces, which devices will appear in the output of a show cdp neighbors command issued from R2?

47. Refer to the exhibit.





The two routers have had their startup configurations cleared and have been restarted.

At a minimum, what must the administrator do to enable CDP to exchange information between R1 and R2?

48. Refer to the exhibit.





The network administrator is testing connectivity from the branch router to the newly installed application server.

What is the most likely reason for the first ping having a success rate of only 60 percent?

49. What two things does a router do when it forwards a packet? (Choose two.)

50. Which two of these functions do routers perform on packets? (Choose two.)

51. Refer to the exhibit.





Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

52. Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets? (Choose two.)

53. The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router.

Which statement is true about this command?

54. Refer to the exhibit.





Host A can communicate with Host B but not with Hosts C or D.

How can the network administrator solve this problem?

55. Refer to the exhibit.





What is the simplest way to configure routing between the regional office network 10.89.0.0/20 and the corporate network?

56. Refer to the exhibit.





Which command would you use to configure a static route on Router1 to network 192.168.202.0/24 with a nondefault administrative distance?

57. What does administrative distance refer to?

58. Which IOS command is used to initiate a login into a VTY port on a remote router?

59. In the configuration of NAT, what does the keyword overload signify?

60. What happens when computers on a private network attempt to connect to the Internet through a Cisco router running PAT?

61. When configuring NAT, the Internet interface is considered to be what?

62. The ip helper-address command does what?

63. Refer to the exhibit.





The network administrator made the entries that are shown and then saved the configuration.

From a console connection, what password or password sequence is required for the administrator to access privileged mode on Router1?

64. The following commands are entered on the router:

Burbank(config)# enable secret fortress

Burbank(config)# line con 0

Burbank(config-line)# login

Burbank(config-line)# password n0way1n

Burbank(config-line)# exit

Burbank(config)# service password-encryption

What is the purpose of the last command entered?

65. What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?

66. An administrator has connected devices to a switch and, for security reasons, wants the dynamically learned MAC addresses from the address table added to the running configuration.

What must be done to accomplish this?

67. A company has placed a networked PC in a lobby so guests can have access to the corporate directory. A security concern is that someone will disconnect the directory PC and re-connect their laptop computer and have access to the corporate network.

For the port servicing the lobby, which three configuration steps should be performed on the switch to prevent this? (Choose three.)

68. Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?

69. How can you ensure that only the MAC address of a server is allowed by switch port Fa0/1?

70. Refer to the exhibit.





A network administrator has configured a Catalyst 2950 switch for remote management by pasting into the console the configuration commands that are shown in the exhibit.

However, a Telnet session cannot be successfully established from a remote host.

What should be done to fix this problem?

71. Which IP addresses are valid for hosts belonging to the 10.1.160.0/20 subnet? (Choose three.)

72. Refer to the exhibit.





An administrator cannot connect from R1 to R2. To troubleshoot this problem, the administrator has entered the command shown in the exhibit.

Based on the output shown, what could be the problem?

73. Refer to the exhibit.





A TFTP server has recently been installed in the Atlanta office. The network administrator is located in the NY office and has made a console connection to the NY router. After establishing the connection they are unable to backup the configuration file and IOS of the NY router to the TFTP server.

What is the cause of this problem?

74. If a host experiences intermittent issues that relate to congestion within a network while remaining connected, what could cause congestion on this LAN?

75. 168.100.1 through 192.168.100.255

What are three problems with this design? (Choose three.)

76. Given an IP address of 192.168.1.42 255.255.255.248, what is the subnet address?

77. Which OSI layer header contains the address of a destination host that is on another network?

78. Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers?

79. Which protocol uses a connection-oriented service to deliver files between end systems?

80. Refer to the exhibit.





If the hubs in the graphic were replaced by switches, what would be virtually eliminated?

81. Refer to the exhibit.





If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the source physical address be in the frame when it reaches host B?

82. Refer to the exhibit.





HostX is transferring a file to the FTP server. Point A represents the frame as it goes toward the Toronto router.

What will the Layer 2 destination address be at this point?

83. Which network device functions only at Layer 1 of the OSI model?

84. Refer to the exhibit.





The host in Kiev sends a request for an HTML document to the server in Minsk.

What will be the source IP address of the packet as it leaves the Kiev router?

85. Refer to the exhibit.





As packets travel from Mary to Robert, which three devices will use the destination MAC address of the packet to determine a forwarding path? (Choose three.)

86. Refer to the exhibit.





Mary is sending an instant message to Robert. The message will be broken into a series of packets that will traverse all network devices.

What addresses will populate these packets as they are forwarded from Router1 to Router2?

87. Refer to the exhibit.





A network device needs to be installed in the place of the icon labeled Network Device to accommodate a leased line attachment to the Internet.

Which network device and interface configuration meets the minimum requirements for this installation?

88. Which transport layer protocol provides best-effort delivery service with no acknowledgment receipt required?

89. Which layer of the OSI model controls the reliability of communications between network devices using flow control, sequencing and acknowledgments?

90. Drag and Drop Question

Drag the appropriate command on the left to the configuration task it accomplishes. (Not all options are used)

91. Drag and Drop Question

Various protocols are listed to the left. On the right are applications for the use of those protocols.

Drag the protocol on the left to an associated function for that protocol on the right. (Not all options are used)

92. Drag and Drop Question

Move a protocol or service on the left to a situation on the right where it would be used. (Not all options are used)

93. Drag and Drop Question

Drag the definition on the left to the correct term on the right. Not all definition on the left will be used.

94. Drag and Drop Question

On the left are various network protocols. On the right are the layers of the TCP/IP model. Assuming a reliable connection is required, move the protocols on the left to the TCP/IP layers on the right to show the proper encapsulation for an email message sent by a host on the LAN. (Not all options are used)

95. Hotspot Questions









Select two options which are security Issues which need to be modified before RouterA is used? (Choose two.)

96. Hotspot Questions









Select three options which are security issues with the current configuration of SwitchA. (Choose three.)

97. Hotspot Questions









Which two of the following are true regarding the configuration of RouterA? (Choose two.)

98. Hotspot Questions









Which of the following is true regarding the configuration of SwitchA?

99. Lab Questions













What is the subnet broadcast address of the LAN connected to Router1?

100. What is the bandwidth on the WAN interface of Router 1?

101. Including the address on the Routed Ethernet interface, how many hosts can have IP addresses on the LAN to which Routed is connected?

102. The hosts in the LAN are not able to connect to the Internet.

Which commands will correct this issue?

103. Refer to the output of the corporate router routing table shown in the graphic.





The corporate router receives an IP packet with a source IP address of 192.168.214.20 and a destination address of 192.168.22.3.

What will the router do with this packet?

104. 168.20.24/29, the router is assigned the first usable host address while the sales server is given the last usable host address.

Which of the following should be entered into the IP properties box for the sales server?

105. What is the default administrative distance of the OSPF routing protocol?

106. What is the subnet address for the IP address 172.19.20.23/28?

107. The network administrator has found the following problem.





The remote networks 172.16.10.0, 172.16.20.0, and 172.16.30.0 are accessed through the Central router's serial 0/0 interface. No users are able to access 172.16.20.0.

After reviewing the command output shown in the graphic, what is the most likely cause of the problem?

108. Refer to the exhibit.





The output is from a router in a large enterprise. From the output, determine the role of the router.

109. Refer to the exhibit.





For security reasons, information about RTA, including platform and IP addresses, should not be accessible from the Internet. This information should, however, be accessible to devices on the internal networks of RTA.

Which command or series of commands will accomplish these objectives?

110. Refer to the exhibit.





The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green.

What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)

111. Wich command can you use to manually assign a static IPV6 address to a router interface?

112. The network administrator is using a Windows PC application that is called putty.exe for remote communication to a switch for network troubleshooting.

Which two protocols could be used during this communication? (Choose two).

113. What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?

114. Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)

115. A network administrator cannot connect to a remote router by using SSH. Part of the show interfaces command is shown.

router#show interfaces

Serial0/1/0 is up, line protocol is down

At which OSI layer should the administrator begin troubleshooting?

116. Refer to the exhibit.





A person is trying to send a file from a host on Network A of the JAX Company to a server on Network Z of the XYZ Company. The file transfer fails. The host on

Network A can communicate with other hosts on Network A.

Which command, issued from router RTA, would be the most useful for troubleshooting this problem?

117. Refer to the exhibit.





A user cannot reach any web sites on the Internet, but others in the department are not having a problem.

What is the most likely cause of the problem?

118. Which option is a valid IPv6 address?

119. What is the purpose of the switchport command?

Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1

Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address 0018.DE8B.4BF8

120. Refer to the exhibit.





A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem on the serial interfaces. The output from the show interfaces command on both routers shows that the serial interface is up, line protocol is down.

Given the partial output for the show running-config in the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of this problem?

121. How many bits are contained in each field of an IPv6 address?

122. Refer to the exhibit.





The DHCP settings have recently been changed on the DHCP server and the client is no longer able to reach network resources.

What should be done to correct this situation?

123. Which three approaches can be used while migrating from an IPv4 addressing scheme to an IPv6 scheme? (Choose three)

124. Refer to the exhibit.





A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN.

What conclusions can be made about this design?

125. Refer to the exhibit.





An administrator replaced the 10/100 Mb NIC in a desktop PC with a 1 Gb NIC and now the PC will not connect to the network. The administrator began troubleshooting on the switch.

Using the switch output shown, what is the cause of the problem?

126. Refer to the exhibit.





A technician is troubleshooting a host connectivity problem. The host is unable to ping a server connected to Switch_A.

Based on the results of the testing, what could be the problem?

127. Which statement about IPv6 is true?

128. What are two recommended ways of protecting network device configuration files from outside network security threats? (Choose two.)

129. Refer to the exhibit.





A problem with network connectivity has been observed. It is suspected that the cable connected to switch port Fa0/9 on Switch1 is disconnected.

What would be an effect of this cable being disconnected?

130. A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge.

What can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session?

131. Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a cisco router?

132. Refer to the exhibit.





A host is connected to switch port fa0/3. The host and switch have been fully configured for IP connectivity as shown.

However, the indicator LED on switch port fa0/3 is not on, and the host cannot communicate with any other hosts including those connected to VLAN 2 on the same switch.

Based on the given information, what is the problem?

133. Identify the four valid IPv6 addresses. (Choose four.)

134. Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.)

135. A network administrator is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF network. The networks attached to the new router do not appear in the routing tables of the other OSPF routers.

Given the information in the partial configuration shown below, what configuration error is causing this problem?

Router(config)# router ospf 1

Router(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0

136. Which statement is true?

137. To allow or prevent load balancing to network 172.16.3.0/24, which of the following commands could be used in R2? (Choose two.)

138. After the network has converged, what type of messaging, if any, occurs between R3 and R4?

139. OSPF is configured using default classful addressing.





With all routers and interfaces operational, how many networks will be in the routing table of R1 that are indicated to be learned by OSPF?

140. R1 is configured with the default configuration of OSPF.





From the following list of IP addresses configured on R1, which address will the OSPF process select as the router ID?

141. R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3.





What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two)

142. What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two)

143. 168.12.0/24 is variably subnetted, 9 subnets, 3 masks

C 192.168.12.64 /28 is directly connected, Loopback1

C 192.168.12.32 /28 is directly connected, Ethernet0

C 192.168.12.48 /28 is directly connected, Loopback0

O 192.168.12.236 /30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0

C 192.168.12.232 /30 is directly connected, Serial0

O 192.168.12.245 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0

O 192.168.12.240 /30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0

O 192.168.12.253 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:37, Serial0

O 192.168.12.249 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:37, Serial0

O 192.168.12.240/30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial 0

To what does the 128 refer to in the router output above?

144. Which of the following describe the process identifier that is used to run OSPF on a router? (Choose two)

145. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is a routing protocol developed for Internet Protocol (IP) networks by the Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP) working group of the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF).

What is the default administrative distance of the OSPF routing protocol?

146. The internetwork infrastructure of company XYZ consists of a single OSPF area as shown in the graphic. There is concern that a lack of router resources is impeding internetwork performance. As part of examining the router resources, the OSPF DRs need to be known. All the router OSPF priorities are at the default and the router IDs are shown with each router.





Which routers are likely to have been elected as DR? (Choose two.)

147. Which address are OSPF hello packets addressed to on point-to-point networks?

148. Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three)

149. Refer to the graphic.





R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3.

What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two)

150. Refert the exhibit





Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID will OSPF use for this router?

151. Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?

152. Why do large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose three.)