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1. A potential problem related to the physical installation of the Iris Scanner in regards to the usage of the iris pattern within a biometric system is:

concern that the laser beam may cause eye damage

the iris pattern changes as a person grows older.

there is a relatively high rate of false accepts.

the optical unit must be positioned so that the sun does not shine into the aperture.

2. In Mandatory Access Control, sensitivity labels attached to object contain what information?

The item's classification

The item's classification and category set

The item's category

The items's need to know

3. What are the components of an object's sensitivity label?

A Classification Set and a single Compartment.

A single classification and a single compartment.

A Classification Set and user credentials.

A single classification and a Compartment Set.

4. What does it mean to say that sensitivity labels are "incomparable"?

The number of classification in the two labels is different.

Neither label contains all the classifications of the other.

the number of categories in the two labels are different.

Neither label contains all the categories of the other.

5. Which of the following is true about Kerberos?

It utilizes public key cryptography.

It encrypts data after a ticket is granted, but passwords are exchanged in plain text.

It depends upon symmetric ciphers.

It is a second party authentication system.

6. Which of the following is needed for System Accountability?

Audit mechanisms.

Documented design as laid out in the Common Criteria.

Authorization.

Formal verification of system design.

7. What is Kerberos?

A three-headed dog from the egyptian mythology.

A trusted third-party authentication protocol.

A security model.

A remote authentication dial in user server.

8. The three classic ways of authenticating yourself to the computer security software are by something you know, by something you have, and by something:

you need.

non-trivial

you are.

you can get.

9. A timely review of system access audit records would be an example of which of the basic security functions?

avoidance.

deterrence.

prevention.

detection.

10. A confidential number used as an authentication factor to verify a user's identity is called a:

User ID

Password

Challenge

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11. Which of the following exemplifies proper separation of duties?

Operators are not permitted modify the system time.

Programmers are permitted to use the system console.

Console operators are permitted to mount tapes and disks.

Tape operators are permitted to use the system console.

12. Which of the following is not a logical control when implementing logical access security?

access profiles.

userids.

employee badges.

passwords.

13. Which one of the following authentication mechanisms creates a problem for mobile users?

Mechanisms based on IP addresses

Mechanism with reusable passwords

one-time password mechanism.

challenge response mechanism.

14. Organizations should consider which of the following first before allowing external access to their LANs via the Internet?

plan for implementing workstation locking mechanisms.

plan for protecting the modem pool.

plan for providing the user with his account usage information.

plan for considering proper authentication options.

15. Which of the following would assist the most in Host Based intrusion detection?

audit trails.

access control lists.

security clearances.

host-based authentication.

16. Controls to keep password sniffing attacks from compromising computer systems include which of the following?

static and recurring passwords.

encryption and recurring passwords.

one-time passwords and encryption.

static and one-time passwords.

17. Kerberos can prevent which one of the following attacks?

tunneling attack.

playback (replay) attack.

destructive attack.

process attack.

18. In discretionary access environments, which of the following entities is authorized to grant information access to other people?

Manager

Group Leader

Security Manager

Data Owner

19. What is the main concern with single sign-on?

Maximum unauthorized access would be possible if a password is disclosed.

The security administrator's workload would increase.

The users' password would be too hard to remember.

User access rights would be increased.

20. Who developed one of the first mathematical models of a multilevel-security computer system?

Diffie and Hellman.

Clark and Wilson.

Bell and LaPadula.

Gasser and Lipner.

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21. A department manager has read access to the salaries of the employees in his/her department but not to the salaries of employees in other departments. A database security mechanism that enforces this policy would typically be said to provide which of the following?

Content-dependent access control

Context-dependent access control

Least privileges access control

Ownership-based access control

22. Which of the following attacks could capture network user passwords?

Data diddling

Sniffing

IP Spoofing

Smurfing

23. Which of the following would constitute the best example of a password to use for access to a system by a network administrator?

holiday

Christmas12

Jenny

GyN19Za!

24. The number of violations that will be accepted or forgiven before a violation record is produced is called which of the following?

clipping level

acceptance level

forgiveness level

logging level

25. Examples of types of physical access controls include all EXCEPT which of the following?

badges

locks

guards

passwords

26. The number of violations that will be accepted or forgiven before a violation record is produced is called which of the following?

clipping level

acceptance level

forgiveness level

logging level

27. Examples of types of physical access controls include all EXCEPT which of the following?

badges

locks

guards

passwords

28. Guards are appropriate whenever the function required by the security program involves which of the following?

The use of discriminating judgment

The use of physical force

The operation of access control devices

The need to detect unauthorized access

29. What physical characteristic does a retinal scan biometric device measure?

The amount of light reaching the retina

The amount of light reflected by the retina

The pattern of light receptors at the back of the eye

The pattern of blood vessels at the back of the eye

30. Which is the last line of defense in a physical security sense?

people

interior barriers

exterior barriers

perimeter barriers

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31. The Computer Security Policy Model the Orange Book is based on is which of the following?

Bell-LaPadula

Data Encryption Standard

Kerberos

Tempest

32. The end result of implementing the principle of least privilege means which of the following?

Users would get access to only the info for which they have a need to know

Users can access all systems.

Users get new privileges added when they change positions.

Authorization creep.

33. Which of the following is the most reliable authentication method for remote access?

Variable callback system

Synchronous token

Fixed callback system

Combination of callback and caller ID

34. Which of the following is the most reliable, secure means of removing data from magnetic storage media such as a magnetic tape, or a cassette?

Degaussing

Parity Bit Manipulation

Zeroization

Buffer overflow

35. The Orange Book is founded upon which security policy model?

The Biba Model

The Bell LaPadula Model

Clark-Wilson Model

TEMPEST

36. Which of the following is true of two-factor authentication?

It uses the RSA public-key signature based on integers with large prime factors.

It requires two measurements of hand geometry.

It does not use single sign-on technology.

It relies on two independent proofs of identity.

37. The primary service provided by Kerberos is which of the following?

non-repudiation

confidentiality

authentication

authorization

38. There are parallels between the trust models in Kerberos and Public Key Infrastructure (PKI). When we compare them side by side, Kerberos tickets correspond most closely to which of the following?

public keys

private keys

public-key certificates

private-key certificates

39. Which of the following is NOT a system-sensing wireless proximity card?

magnetically striped card

passive device

field-powered device

transponder

40. Which of the following is NOT a type of motion detector?

Photoelectric sensor

Passive infrared sensors

Microwave Sensor.

Ultrasonic Sensor.

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41. Which of the following is NOT a technique used to perform a penetration test?

traffic padding

scanning and probing

war dialing

sniffing

42. In which of the following model are Subjects and Objects identified and the permissions applied to each subject/object combination are specified. Such a model can be used to quickly summarize what permissions a subject has for various system objects.

Access Control Matrix model

Take-Grant model

Bell-LaPadula model

Biba model

43. In which of the following security models is the subject's clearance compared to the object's classification such that specific rules can be applied to control how the subject-to-object interactions take place?

Bell-LaPadula model

Biba model

Access Matrix model

Take-Grant model

44. Which of the following classes is the first level (lower) defined in the TCSEC (Orange Book) as mandatory protection?

45. Which of the following classes is defined in the TCSEC (Orange Book) as discretionary protection?

46. Which of the following division is defined in the TCSEC (Orange Book) as minimal protection?

Division D

Division C

Division B

Division A

47. Which of the following was developed by the National Computer Security Center (NCSC) for the US Department of Defense ?

TCSEC

ITSEC

DIACAP

NIACAP

48. Which of the following was developed to address some of the weaknesses in Kerberos and uses public key cryptography for the distribution of secret keys and provides additional access control support?

SESAME

RADIUS

KryptoKnight

TACACS+

49. Single Sign-on (SSO) is characterized by which of the following advantages?

Convenience

Convenience and centralized administration

Convenience and centralized data administration

Convenience and centralized network administration

50. The "vulnerability of a facility" to damage or attack may be assessed by all of the following except:

Inspection

History of losses

Security controls

security budget

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51. What is the primary role of smartcards in a PKI?

Transparent renewal of user keys

Easy distribution of the certificates between the users

Fast hardware encryption of the raw data

Tamper resistant, mobile storage and application of private keys of the users

52. What kind of certificate is used to validate a user identity?

Public key certificate

Attribute certificate

Root certificate

Code signing certificate

53. Which of the following is not a physical control for physical security?

lighting

fences

training

facility construction materials

54. Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design (CPTED) is a discipline that:

Outlines how the proper design of a physical environment can reduce crime by directly affecting human behavior.

Outlines how the proper design of the logical environment can reduce crime by directly affecting human behavior.

Outlines how the proper design of the detective control environment can reduce crime by directly affecting human behavior.

Outlines how the proper design of the administrative control environment can reduce crime by directly affecting human behavior.

55. The following is NOT a security characteristic we need to consider while choosing a biometric identification systems:

data acquisition process

cost

enrollment process

speed and user interface

56. In biometric identification systems, at the beginning, it was soon apparent that truly positive identification could only be based on :

sex of a person

physical attributes of a person

age of a person

voice of a person

57. In biometric identification systems, at the beginning, it was soon apparent that truly positive identification could only be based on physical attributes of a person. This raised the necessity of answering 2 questions :

what was the sex of a person and his age

what part of body to be used and how to accomplish identification that is viable

what was the age of a person and his income level

what was the tone of the voice of a person and his habits

58. In biometric identification systems, the parts of the body conveniently available for identification are:

neck and mouth

hands, face, and eyes

feet and hair

voice and neck

59. Controlling access to information systems and associated networks is necessary for the preservation of their:

Authenticity, confidentiality and availability

Confidentiality, integrity, and availability.

integrity and availability.

authenticity,confidentiality, integrity and availability.

60. Controls like guards and general steps to maintain building security, securing of server rooms or laptops, the protection of cables, and usage of magnetic switches on doors and windows are some of the examples of:

Administrative controls

Logical controls

Technical controls

Physical controls

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61. To control access by a subject (an active entity such as individual or process) to an object (a passive entity such as a file) involves setting up:

Access Rules

Access Matrix

Identification controls

Access terminal

62. Rule-Based Access Control (RuBAC) access is determined by rules. Such rules would fit within what category of access control ?

Discretionary Access Control (DAC)

Mandatory Access control (MAC)

Non-Discretionary Access Control (NDAC)

Lattice-based Access control

63. The type of discretionary access control (DAC) that is based on an individual's identity is also called:

Identity-based Access control

Rule-based Access control

Non-Discretionary Access Control

Lattice-based Access control

64. Which access control type has a central authority that determine to what objects the subjects have access to and it is based on role or on the organizational security policy?

Mandatory Access Control

Discretionary Access Control

Non-Discretionary Access Control

Rule-based Access control

65. What is called the type of access control where there are pairs of elements that have the least upper bound of values and greatest lower bound of values?

Mandatory model

Discretionary model

Lattice model

Rule model

66. Which of the following control pairing places emphasis on "soft" mechanisms that support the access control objectives?

Preventive/Technical Pairing

Preventive/Administrative Pairing

Preventive/Physical Pairing

Detective/Administrative Pairing

67. Which of the following control pairings include: organizational policies and procedures, preemployment background checks, strict hiring practices, employment agreements, employee termination procedures, vacation scheduling, labeling of sensitive materials, increased supervision, security awareness training, behavior awareness, and sign-up procedures to obtain access to information systems and networks?

Preventive/Administrative Pairing

Preventive/Technical Pairing

Preventive/Physical Pairing

Detective/Administrative Pairing

68. Technical controls such as encryption and access control can be built into the operating system, be software applications, or can be supplemental hardware/software units. Such controls, also known as logical controls, represent which pairing?

Preventive/Administrative Pairing

Preventive/Technical Pairing

Preventive/Physical Pairing

Detective/Technical Pairing

69. What is called the use of technologies such as fingerprint, retina, and iris scans to authenticate the individuals requesting access to resources?

Micrometrics

Macrometrics

Biometrics

MicroBiometrics

70. What are called user interfaces that limit the functions that can be selected by a user?

Constrained user interfaces

Limited user interfaces

Mini user interfaces

Unlimited user interfaces

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71. What would be the name of a Logical or Virtual Table dynamically generated to restrict the information a user can access in a database?

Database Management system

Database views

Database security

Database shadowing

72. The control measures that are intended to reveal the violations of security policy using software and hardware are associated with:

Preventive/physical

Detective/technical

Detective/physical

Detective/administrative

73. The controls that usually require a human to evaluate the input from sensors or cameras to determine if a real threat exists are associated with:

Preventive/physical

Detective/technical

Detective/physical

Detective/administrative

74. A central authority determines what subjects can have access to certain objects based on the organizational security policy is called:

Mandatory Access Control

Discretionary Access Control

Non-Discretionary Access Control

Rule-based Access control

75. What is called the act of a user professing an identity to a system, usually in the form of a log-on ID?

Authentication

Identification

Authorization

Confidentiality

76. What is called the verification that the user's claimed identity is valid and is usually implemented through a user password at log-on time?

Authentication

Identification

Integrity

Confidentiality

77. Which one of the following factors is NOT one on which Authentication is based?

Type 1. Something you know, such as a PIN or password

Type 2. Something you have, such as an ATM card or smart card

Type 3. Something you are (based upon one or more intrinsic physical or behavioral traits), such as a fingerprint or retina scan

Type 4. Something you are, such as a system administrator or security administrator

78. Which type of password provides maximum security because a new password is required for each new log-on?

One-time or dynamic password

Congnitive password

Static password

Passphrase

79. What is called a password that is the same for each log-on session?

"one-time password"

"two-time password"

static password

dynamic password

80. What is called a sequence of characters that is usually longer than the allotted number for a password?

passphrase

cognitive phrase

anticipated phrase

Real phrase

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81. Which of the following would be true about Static password tokens?

The owner identity is authenticated by the token

The owner will never be authenticated by the token.

The owner will authenticate himself to the system.

The token does not authenticates the token owner but the system.

82. In Synchronous dynamic password tokens:

The token generates a new password value at fixed time intervals (this password could be based on the time of day encrypted with a secret key).

The token generates a new non-unique password value at fixed time intervals (this password could be based on the time of day encrypted with a secret key).

The unique password is not entered into a system or workstation along with an owner's PI

The authentication entity in a system or workstation knows an owner's secret key and PIN, and the entity verifies that the entered password is invalid and that it was entered during the invalid time window.

83. Which of the following choices describe a Challenge-response tokens generation?

A workstation or system that generates a random challenge string that the user enters into the token when prompted along with the proper PI

A workstation or system that generates a random login id that the user enters when prompted along with the proper PI

A special hardware device that is used to generate ramdom text in a cryptography system.

The authentication mechanism in the workstation or system does not determine if the owner should be authenticated.

84. What is called an automated means of identifying or authenticating the identity of a living person based on physiological or behavioral characteristics?

Biometrics

Micrometrics

Macrometrics

MicroBiometrics

85. In biometrics, "one-to-many" search against database of stored biometric images is done in:

Authentication

Identification

Identities

Identity-based access control

86. In biometrics, the "one-to-one" search used to verify claim to an identity made by a person is considered:

Authentication

Identification

Auditing

Authorization

87. What is called the percentage of valid subjects that are falsely rejected by a Biometric Authentication system?

False Rejection Rate (FRR) or Type I Error

False Acceptance Rate (FAR) or Type II Error

Crossover Error Rate (CER)

True Rejection Rate (TRR) or Type III Error

88. What is called the percentage at which the False Rejection Rate equals the False Acceptance Rate?

False Rejection Rate (FRR) or Type I Error

False Acceptance Rate (FAR) or Type II Error

Crossover Error Rate (CER)

Failure to enroll rate (FTE or FER)

89. Considerations of privacy, invasiveness, and psychological and physical comfort when using the system are important elements for which of the following?

Accountability of biometrics systems

Acceptability of biometrics systems

Availability of biometrics systems

Adaptability of biometrics systems

90. Which of the following biometric characteristics cannot be used to uniquely authenticate an individual's identity?

Retina scans

Iris scans

Palm scans

Skin scans

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91. Which of the following offers advantages such as the ability to use stronger passwords, easier password administration, one set of credential, and faster resource access?

Smart cards

Single Sign-On (SSO)

Symmetric Ciphers

Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)

92. Which of the following describes the major disadvantage of many Single Sign-On (SSO)

implementations?

Once an individual obtains access to the system through the initial log-on, they have access to all resources within the environment that the account has access to.

The initial logon process is cumbersome to discourage potential intruders.

Once a user obtains access to the system through the initial log-on, they only need to logon to some applications.

Once a user obtains access to the system through the initial log-on, he has to logout from all other systems

93. Which of the following is implemented through scripts or smart agents that replays the users multiple log-ins against authentication servers to verify a user's identity which permit access to system services?

Single Sign-On

Dynamic Sign-On

Smart cards

Kerberos

94. Which of the following is a trusted, third party authentication protocol that was developed under Project Athena at MIT?

Kerberos

SESAME

KryptoKnight

NetSP

95. Which of the following is NOT true of the Kerberos protocol?

Only a single login is required per session.

The initial authentication steps are done using public key algorithm.

The KDC is aware of all systems in the network and is trusted by all of them

It performs mutual authentication

96. Which of the following is addressed by Kerberos?

Confidentiality and Integrity

Authentication and Availability

Validation and Integrity

Auditability and Integrity

97. Kerberos is vulnerable to replay in which of the following circumstances?

When a private key is compromised within an allotted time window.

When a public key is compromised within an allotted time window.

When a ticket is compromised within an allotted time window.

When the KSD is compromised within an allotted time window.

98. Like the Kerberos protocol, SESAME is also subject to which of the following?

timeslot replay

password guessing

symmetric key guessing

asymmetric key guessing

99. RADIUS incorporates which of the following services?

Authentication server and PIN codes.

Authentication of clients and static passwords generation.

Authentication of clients and dynamic passwords generation.

Authentication server as well as support for Static and Dynamic passwords.

100. Which of the following protects a password from eavesdroppers and supports the encryption of communication?

Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)

Challenge Handshake Identification Protocol (CHIP)

Challenge Handshake Encryption Protocol (CHEP)

Challenge Handshake Substitution Protocol (CHSP)

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101. The Terminal Access Controller Access Control System (TACACS) employs which of the following?

a user ID and static password for network access

a user ID and dynamic password for network access

a user ID and symmetric password for network access

a user ID and asymmetric password for network access

102. Which of the following is most relevant to determining the maximum effective cost of access control?

the value of information that is protected

management's perceptions regarding data importance

budget planning related to base versus incremental spending.

the cost to replace lost data

103. Which of the following is NOT a factor related to Access Control?

integrity

authenticity

confidentiality

availability

104. Which of the following is most appropriate to notify an external user that session monitoring is being conducted?

Logon Banners

Wall poster

Employee Handbook

Written agreement

105. Which of the following pairings uses technology to enforce access control policies?

Preventive/Administrative

Preventive/Technical

Preventive/Physical

Detective/Administrative

106. Access control is the collection of mechanisms that permits managers of a system to exercise a directing or restraining influence over the behavior, use, and content of a system. It does not permit management to:

specify what users can do

specify which resources they can access

specify how to restrain hackers

specify what operations they can perform on a system.

107. Access Control techniques do not include which of the following choices?

Relevant Access Controls

Discretionary Access Control

Mandatory Access Control

Lattice Based Access Control

108. Access Control techniques do not include which of the following?

Rule-Based Access Controls

Role-Based Access Control

Mandatory Access Control

Random Number Based Access Control

109. Which of the following statements relating to the Bell-LaPadula security model is FALSE (assuming the Strong Star property is not being used) ?

A subject is not allowed to read up.

The property restriction can be escaped by temporarily downgrading a high level subject.

A subject is not allowed to read down.

It is restricted to confidentiality.

110. Which of the following logical access exposures INVOLVES CHANGING data before, or as it is entered into the computer?

Data diddling

Salami techniques

Trojan horses

Viruses

Page 12 of 43

111. When a biometric system is used, which error type deals with the possibility of GRANTING access to impostors who should be REJECTED?

Type I error

Type II error

Type III error

Crossover error

112. Which of the following is the FIRST step in protecting data's confidentiality?

Install a firewall

Implement encryption

Identify which information is sensitive

Review all user access rights

113. Which of the following best ensures accountability of users for the actions taken within a system or domain?

Identification

Authentication

Authorization

Credentials

114. Which of the following statements pertaining to biometrics is FALSE?

User can be authenticated based on behavior.

User can be authenticated based on unique physical attributes.

User can be authenticated by what he knows.

A biometric system's accuracy is determined by its crossover error rate (CER).

115. Which of the following biometric devices offers the LOWEST CER?

Keystroke dynamics

Voice verification

Iris scan

Fingerprint

116. Which of the following is the LEAST user accepted biometric device?

Fingerprint

Iris scan

Retina scan

Voice verification

117. Which of the following is the WEAKEST authentication mechanism?

Passphrases

Passwords

One-time passwords

Token devices

118. Which of the following statements pertaining to access control is false?

Users should only access data on a need-to-know basis.

If access is not explicitly denied, it should be implicitly allowed.

Access rights should be granted based on the level of trust a company has on a subject.

Roles can be an efficient way to assign rights to a type of user who performs certain tasks.

119. Which of the following is NOT part of the Kerberos authentication protocol?

Symmetric key cryptography

Authentication service (AS)

Principals

Public Key

120. Which access control model enables the OWNER of the resource to specify what subjects can access specific resources based on their identity?

Discretionary Access Control

Mandatory Access Control

Sensitive Access Control

Role-based Access Control

Page 13 of 43

121. Which of the following access control models is based on sensitivity labels?

Discretionary access control

Mandatory access control

Rule-based access control

Role-based access control

122. Which access control model is also called Non Discretionary Access Control (NDAC)?

Lattice based access control

Mandatory access control

Role-based access control

Label-based access control

123. Which access model is most appropriate for companies with a high employee turnover?

Role-based access control

Mandatory access control

Lattice-based access control

Discretionary access control

124. What can be defined as a list of subjects along with their access rights that are authorized to access a specific object?

A capability table

An access control list

An access control matrix

A role-based matrix

125. What is the difference between Access Control Lists (ACLs) and Capability Tables?

Access control lists are related/attached to a subject whereas capability tables are related/attached to an object.

Access control lists are related/attached to an object whereas capability tables are related/attached to a subject.

Capability tables are used for objects whereas access control lists are used for users.

They are basically the same.

126. What can be defined as a table of subjects and objects indicating what actions individual subjects can take upon individual objects?

A capacity table

An access control list

An access control matrix

A capability table

127. Which access control model is best suited in an environment where a high security level is required and where it is desired that only the administrator grants access control?

DAC

MAC

Access control matrix

TACACS

128. Which access control model provides upper and lower bounds of access capabilities for a subject?

Role-based access control

Lattice-based access control

Biba access control

Content-dependent access control

129. How are memory cards and smart cards different?

Memory cards normally hold more memory than smart cards

Smart cards provide a two-factor authentication whereas memory cards don't

Memory cards have no processing power

Only smart cards can be used for ATM cards

130. Why do buffer overflows happen? What is the main cause?

Because buffers can only hold so much data

Because of improper parameter checking within the application

Because they are an easy weakness to exploit

Because of insufficient system memory

Page 14 of 43

131. What is the main focus of the Bell-LaPadula security model?

Accountability

Integrity

Confidentiality

Availability

132. Which of the following statements pertaining to the Bell-LaPadula is TRUE if you are NOT making use of the strong star property?

It allows "read up."

It addresses covert channels.

It addresses management of access controls.

It allows "write up."

133. Which security model introduces access to objects only through programs?

The Biba model

The Bell-LaPadula model

The Clark-Wilson model

The information flow model

134. Which security model ensures that actions that take place at a higher security level do not affect actions that take place at a lower level?

The Bell-LaPadula model

The information flow model

The noninterference model

The Clark-Wilson model

135. Which of the following security models does NOT concern itself with the flow of data?

The information flow model

The Biba model

The Bell-LaPadula model

The noninterference model

136. What Orange Book security rating is reserved for systems that have been evaluated but fail to meet the criteria and requirements of the higher divisions?

137. Which division of the Orange Book deals with discretionary protection (need-to-know)?

138. Which of the following are not Remote Access concerns?

Justification for remote access

Auditing of activities

Regular review of access privileges

Access badges

139. Smart cards are an example of which type of control?

Detective control

Administrative control

Technical control

Physical control

140. What security model is dependent on security labels?

Discretionary access control

Label-based access control

Mandatory access control

Non-discretionary access control

Page 15 of 43

141. What security model implies a central authority that define rules and sometimes global rules, dictating what subjects can have access to what objects?

Flow Model

Discretionary access control

Mandatory access control

Non-discretionary access control

142. Which type of password token involves time synchronization?

Static password tokens

Synchronous dynamic password tokens

Asynchronous dynamic password tokens

Challenge-response tokens

143. Which of the following statements pertaining to biometrics is false?

Increased system sensitivity can cause a higher false rejection rate

The crossover error rate is the point at which false rejection rate equals the false acceptance rate.

False acceptance rate is also known as Type II error.

Biometrics are based on the Type 2 authentication mechanism.

144. Which of the following statements pertaining to Kerberos is TRUE?

Kerberos does not address availability

Kerberos does not address integrity

Kerberos does not make use of Symmetric Keys

Kerberos cannot address confidentiality of information

145. Which of the following centralized access control mechanisms is the least appropriate for mobile workers accessing the corporate network over analog lines?

TACACS

Call-back

CHAP

RADIUS

146. Which of the following is NOT a compensating measure for access violations?

Backups

Business continuity planning

Insurance

Security awareness

147. Which of the following is most affected by denial-of-service (DOS) attacks?

Confidentiality

Integrity

Accountability

Availability

148. What refers to legitimate users accessing networked services that would normally be restricted to them?

Spoofing

Piggybacking

Eavesdropping

Logon abuse

149. In regards to information classification what is the main responsibility of information (data) owner?

determining the data sensitivity or classification level

running regular data backups

audit the data users

periodically check the validity and accuracy of the data

150. Which of the following is not a two-factor authentication mechanism?

Something you have and something you know.

Something you do and a password.

A smartcard and something you are.

Something you know and a password.

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151. Which of the following access control models introduces user security clearance and data classification?

Role-based access control

Discretionary access control

Non-discretionary access control

Mandatory access control

152. Password management falls into which control category?

Compensating

Detective

Preventive

Technical

153. Which of the following access control models requires security clearance for subjects?

Identity-based access control

Role-based access control

Discretionary access control

Mandatory access control

154. Which of the following access control models requires defining classification for objects?

Role-based access control

Discretionary access control

Identity-based access control

Mandatory access control

155. In the context of access control, locks, gates, guards are examples of which of the following?

Administrative controls

Technical controls

Physical controls

Logical controls

156. Which of the following statements pertaining to using Kerberos without any extension is false?

A client can be impersonated by password-guessing.

Kerberos is mostly a third-party authentication protocol.

Kerberos uses public key cryptography.

Kerberos provides robust authentication.

157. Which of the following statements pertaining to Kerberos is false?

The Key Distribution Center represents a single point of failure.

Kerberos manages access permissions.

Kerberos uses a database to keep a copy of all users' public keys.

Kerberos uses symmetric key cryptography.

158. Which access control model would a lattice-based access control model be an example of?

Mandatory access control.

Discretionary access control.

Non-discretionary access control.

Rule-based access control.

159. Which of the following is an example of discretionary access control?

Identity-based access control

Task-based access control

Role-based access control

Rule-based access control

160. Which of the following would be used to implement Mandatory Access Control (MAC)?

Clark-Wilson Access Control

Role-based access control

Lattice-based access control

User dictated access control

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161. Which type of attack involves impersonating a user or a system?

Smurfing attack

Spoofing attack

Spamming attack

Sniffing attack

162. Which of the following is NOT an advantage that TACACS+ has over TACACS?

Event logging

Use of two-factor password authentication

User has the ability to change his password

Ability for security tokens to be resynchronized

163. Which of the following remote access authentication systems is the most robust?

TACACS+

RADIUS

PAP

TACACS

164. Which of the following is an example of a passive attack?

Denying services to legitimate users

Shoulder surfing

Brute-force password cracking

Smurfing

165. What does the Clark-Wilson security model focus on?

Confidentiality

Integrity

Accountability

Availability

166. What does the simple security (ss) property mean in the Bell-LaPadula model?

No read up

No write down

No read down

No write up

167. What does the (star) property mean in the Bell-LaPadula model?

No write up

No read up

No write down

No read down

168. What does the (star) integrity axiom mean in the Biba model?

No read up

No write down

No read down

No write up

169. What does the simple integrity axiom mean in the Biba model?

No write down

No read down

No read up

No write up

170. What is the Biba security model concerned with?

Confidentiality

Reliability

Availability

Integrity

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171. Which security model uses division of operations into different parts and requires different users to perform each part?

Bell-LaPadula model

Biba model

Clark-Wilson model

Non-interference model

172. What is the main objective of proper separation of duties?

To prevent employees from disclosing sensitive information.

To ensure access controls are in place.

To ensure that no single individual can compromise a system.

To ensure that audit trails are not tampered with.

173. Which of the following is related to physical security and is not considered a technical control?

Access control Mechanisms

Intrusion Detection Systems

Firewalls

Locks

174. Which of the following floors would be most appropriate to locate information processing facilities in a 6-stories building?

Basement

Ground floor

Third floor

Sixth floor

175. Which of the following Operation Security controls is intended to prevent unauthorized intruders from internally or externally accessing the system, and to lower the amount and impact of unintentional errors that are entering the system?

Detective Controls

Preventative Controls

Corrective Controls

Directive Controls

176. This baseline sets certain thresholds for specific errors or mistakes allowed and the amount of these occurrences that can take place before it is considered suspicious?

Checkpoint level

Ceiling level

Clipping level

Threshold level

177. Which type of control is concerned with avoiding occurrences of risks?

Deterrent controls

Detective controls

Preventive controls

Compensating controls

178. Which type of control is concerned with restoring controls?

Compensating controls

Corrective controls

Detective controls

Preventive controls

179. Which of the following biometric parameters are better suited for authentication use over a long period of time?

Iris pattern

Voice pattern

Signature dynamics

Retina pattern

180. In the CIA triad, what does the letter A stand for?

Auditability

Accountability

Availability

Authentication

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181. Which TCSEC class specifies discretionary protection?

182. Which of the following access control techniques best gives the security officers the ability to specify and enforce enterprise-specific security policies in a way that maps naturally to an organization's structure?

Access control lists

Discretionary access control

Role-based access control

Non-mandatory access control

183. Which access control model was proposed for enforcing access control in government and military applications?

Bell-LaPadula model

Biba model

Sutherland model

Brewer-Nash model

184. Which access control model achieves data integrity through well-formed transactions and separation of duties?

Clark-Wilson model

Biba model

Non-interference model

Sutherland model

185. For maximum security design, what type of fence is most effective and cost-effective method (Foot are being used as measurement unit below)?

3' to 4' high

6' to 7' high

8' high and above with strands of barbed wire

Double fencing

186. Which of the following protection devices is used for spot protection within a few inches of the object, rather than for overall room security monitoring?

Wave pattern motion detectors

Capacitance detectors

Field-powered devices

Audio detectors

187. Physical security is accomplished through proper facility construction, fire and water protection, anti-theft mechanisms, intrusion detection systems, and security procedures that are adhered to and enforced. Which of the following is not a component that achieves this type of security?

Administrative control mechanisms

Integrity control mechanisms

Technical control mechanisms

Physical control mechanisms

188. The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) standard pertaining to perimeter protection states that critical areas should be illuminated up to?

Illiminated at nine feet high with at least three foot-candles

Illiminated at eight feet high with at least three foot-candles

Illiminated at eight feet high with at least two foot-candles

Illuminated at nine feet high with at least two foot-candles

189. This is a common security issue that is extremely hard to control in large environments. It occurs when a user has more computer rights, permissions, and access than what is required for the tasks the user needs to fulfill. What best describes this scenario?

Excessive Rights

Excessive Access

Excessive Permissions

Excessive Privileges

190. Which of the following are additional access control objectives?

Consistency and utility

Reliability and utility

Usefulness and utility

Convenience and utility

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191. Logical or technical controls involve the restriction of access to systems and the protection of information. Which of the following statements pertaining to these types of controls is correct?

Examples of these types of controls include policies and procedures, security awareness training, background checks, work habit checks but do not include a review of vacation history, and also do not include increased supervision.

Examples of these types of controls do not include encryption, smart cards, access lists, and transmission protocols.

Examples of these types of controls are encryption, smart cards, access lists, and transmission protocols.

Examples of these types of controls include policies and procedures, security awareness training, background checks, work habit checks, a review of vacation history, and increased supervision.

192. Controls provide accountability for individuals who are accessing sensitive information. This accountability is accomplished:

through access control mechanisms that require identification and authentication and through the audit function.

through logical or technical controls involving the restriction of access to systems and the protection of information.

through logical or technical controls but not involving the restriction of access to systems and the protection of information.

through access control mechanisms that do not require identification and authentication and do not operate through the audit function.

193. In Discretionary Access Control the subject has authority, within certain limitations,

but he is not permitted to specify what objects can be accessible and so we need to get an independent third party to specify what objects can be accessible.

to specify what objects can be accessible.

to specify on a aggregate basis without understanding what objects can be accessible.

to specify in full detail what objects can be accessible.

194. In non-discretionary access control using Role Based Access Control (RBAC), a central authority determines what subjects can have access to certain objects based on the organizational security policy. The access controls may be based on:

The societies role in the organization

The individual's role in the organization

The group-dynamics as they relate to the individual's role in the organization

The group-dynamics as they relate to the master-slave role in the organization

195. In an organization where there are frequent personnel changes, non-discretionary access control using Role Based Access Control (RBAC) is useful because:

people need not use discretion

the access controls are based on the individual's role or title within the organization.

the access controls are not based on the individual's role or title within the organization

the access controls are often based on the individual's role or title within the organization

196. Another type of access control is lattice-based access control. In this type of control a lattice model is applied. How is this type of access control concept applied?

The pair of elements is the subject and object, and the subject has an upper bound equal or higher than the upper bound of the object being accessed.

The pair of elements is the subject and object, and the subject has an upper bound lower then the upper bound of the object being accessed.

The pair of elements is the subject and object, and the subject has no special upper or lower bound needed within the lattice.

The pair of elements is the subject and object, and the subject has no access rights in relation to an object.

197. Detective/Technical measures:

include intrusion detection systems and automatically-generated violation reports from audit trail information.

do not include intrusion detection systems and automatically-generated violation reports from audit trail information.

include intrusion detection systems but do not include automatically-generated violation reports from audit trail information.

include intrusion detection systems and customised-generated violation reports from audit trail information.

198. Identification and authentication are the keystones of most access control systems. Identification establishes:

User accountability for the actions on the system.

Top management accountability for the actions on the system.

EDP department accountability for the actions of users on the system.

Authentication for actions on the system

199. Passwords can be required to change monthly, quarterly, or at other intervals:

depending on the criticality of the information needing protection

depending on the criticality of the information needing protection and the password's frequency of use

depending on the password's frequency of use

not depending on the criticality of the information needing protection but depending on the password's frequency of use

200. When submitting a passphrase for authentication, the passphrase is converted into ...

a virtual password by the system

a new passphrase by the system

a new passphrase by the encryption technology

a real password by the system which can be used forever

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201. An alternative to using passwords for authentication in logical or technical access control is:

manage without passwords

biometrics

not there

use of them for physical access control

202. Almost all types of detection permit a system's sensitivity to be increased or decreased during an inspection process. If the system's sensitivity is increased, such as in a biometric authentication system, the system becomes increasingly selective and has the possibility of generating:

Lower False Rejection Rate (FRR)

Higher False Rejection Rate (FRR)

Higher False Acceptance Rate (FAR)

It will not affect either FAR or FRR

203. In the context of Biometric authentication, what is a quick way to compare the accuracy of devices. In general, the device that have the lowest value would be the most accurate. Which of the following would be used to compare accuracy of devices?

the CER is used.

the FRR is used

the FAR is used

the FER is used

204. Because all the secret keys are held and authentication is performed on the Kerberos TGS and the authentication servers, these servers are vulnerable to:

neither physical attacks nor attacks from malicious code.

physical attacks only

both physical attacks and attacks from malicious code.

physical attacks but not attacks from malicious code.

205. The throughput rate is the rate at which individuals, once enrolled, can be processed and identified or authenticated by a biometric system. Acceptable throughput rates are in the range of:

100 subjects per minute.

25 subjects per minute.

10 subjects per minute.

50 subjects per minute.

206. In addition to the accuracy of the biometric systems, there are other factors that must also be considered:

These factors include the enrollment time and the throughput rate, but not acceptability.

These factors do not include the enrollment time, the throughput rate, and acceptability.

These factors include the enrollment time, the throughput rate, and acceptability.

These factors include the enrollment time, but not the throughput rate, neither the acceptability.

207. Which of the following biometric devices has the lowest user acceptance level?

Retina Scan

Fingerprint scan

Hand geometry

Signature recognition

208. Which of the following would be an example of the best password?

golf001

Elizabeth

T1me4g0lF

password

209. A network-based vulnerability assessment is a type of test also referred to as:

An active vulnerability assessment.

A routing vulnerability assessment.

A host-based vulnerability assessment.

A passive vulnerability assessment.

210. Which of the following is NOT a form of detective administrative control?

Rotation of duties

Required vacations

Separation of duties

Security reviews and audits

Page 22 of 43

211. Which TCSEC level is labeled Controlled Access Protection?

212. Which security model is based on the military classification of data and people with clearances?

Brewer-Nash model

Clark-Wilson model

Bell-LaPadula model

Biba model

213. What mechanism automatically causes an alarm originating in a data center to be transmitted over the local municipal fire or police alarm circuits for relaying to both the local police/fire station and the appropriate headquarters?

Central station alarm

Proprietary alarm

A remote station alarm

An auxiliary station alarm

214. Which of the following does not apply to system-generated passwords?

Passwords are harder to remember for users.

If the password-generating algorithm gets to be known, the entire system is in jeopardy.

Passwords are more vulnerable to brute force and dictionary attacks.

Passwords are harder to guess for attackers.

215. Which of the following is not a preventive login control?

Last login message

Password aging

Minimum password length

Account expiration

216. Which of the following forms of authentication would most likely apply a digital signature algorithm to every bit of data that is sent from the claimant to the verifier?

Dynamic authentication

Continuous authentication

Encrypted authentication

Robust authentication

217. Who first described the DoD multilevel military security policy in abstract, formal terms?

David Bell and Leonard LaPadula

Rivest, Shamir and Adleman

Whitfield Diffie and Martin Hellman

David Clark and David Wilson

218. What is the most critical characteristic of a biometric identifying system?

Perceived intrusiveness

Storage requirements

Accuracy

Scalability

219. What is considered the most important type of error to avoid for a biometric access control system?

Type I Error

Type II Error

Combined Error Rate

Crossover Error Rate

220. How can an individual/person best be identified or authenticated to prevent local masquarading attacks?

UserId and password

Smart card and PIN code

Two-factor authentication

Biometrics

Page 23 of 43

221. Which authentication technique best protects against hijacking?

Static authentication

Continuous authentication

Robust authentication

Strong authentication

222. Which of the following is not a security goal for remote access?

Reliable authentication of users and systems

Protection of confidential data

Easy to manage access control to systems and network resources

Automated login for remote users

223. Which of the following questions is less likely to help in assessing identification and authentication controls?

Is a current list maintained and approved of authorized users and their access?

Are passwords changed at least every ninety days or earlier if needed?

Are inactive user identifications disabled after a specified period of time?

Is there a process for reporting incidents?

224. Which of the following questions is less likely to help in assessing physical access controls?

Does management regularly review the list of persons with physical access to sensitive facilities?

Is the operating system configured to prevent circumvention of the security software and application controls?

Are keys or other access devices needed to enter the computer room and media library?

Are visitors to sensitive areas signed in and escorted?

225. Which of the following questions is less likely to help in assessing physical and environmental protection?

Are entry codes changed periodically?

Are appropriate fire suppression and prevention devices installed and working?

Are there processes to ensure that unauthorized individuals cannot read, copy, alter, or steal printed or electronic information?

Is physical access to data transmission lines controlled?

226. How would nonrepudiation be best classified as?

A preventive control

A logical control

A corrective control

A compensating control

227. Why should batch files and scripts be stored in a protected area?

Because of the least privilege concept.

Because they cannot be accessed by operators.

Because they may contain credentials.

Because of the need-to-know concept.

228. Which of the following Kerberos components holds all users' and services' cryptographic keys?

The Key Distribution Service

The Authentication Service

The Key Distribution Center

The Key Granting Service

229. Sensitivity labels are an example of what application control type?

Preventive security controls

Detective security controls

Compensating administrative controls

Preventive accuracy controls

230. Which integrity model defines a constrained data item, an integrity verification procedure and a transformation procedure?

The Take-Grant model

The Biba integrity model

The Clark Wilson integrity model

The Bell-LaPadula integrity model

Page 24 of 43

231. How should a doorway of a manned facility with automatic locks be configured?

It should be configured to be fail-secure.

It should be configured to be fail-safe.

It should have a door delay cipher lock.

It should not allow piggybacking.

232. Which of following is not a service provided by AAA servers (Radius, TACACS and DIAMETER)?

Authentication

Administration

Accounting

Authorization

233. In response to Access-request from a client such as a Network Access Server (NAS), which of the following is not one of the response from a RADIUS Server?

Access-Accept

Access-Reject

Access-Granted

Access-Challenge

234. Which of the following statements pertaining to RADIUS is incorrect:

A RADIUS server can act as a proxy server, forwarding client requests to other authentication domains.

Most of RADIUS clients have a capability to query secondary RADIUS servers for redundancy.

Most RADIUS servers have built-in database connectivity for billing and reporting purposes.

Most RADIUS servers can work with DIAMETER servers.

235. Which of the following is used by RADIUS for communication between clients and servers?

TCP

SSL

UDP

SSH

236. Which of the following protocol was used by the INITIAL version of the Terminal Access Controller Access Control System TACACS for communication between clients and servers?

TCP

SSL

UDP

SSH

237. Which of the following can best eliminate dial-up access through a Remote Access Server as a hacking vector?

Using a TACACS+ server.

Installing the Remote Access Server outside the firewall and forcing legitimate users to authenticate to the firewall.

Setting modem ring count to at least 5.

Only attaching modems to non-networked hosts.

238. In the Bell-LaPadula model, the Star-property is also called:

The simple security property

The confidentiality property

The confinement property

The tranquility property

239. An attack initiated by an entity that is authorized to access system resources but uses them in a way not approved by those who granted the authorization is known as a(n):

active attack

outside attack

inside attack

passive attack

240. Which of the following can be defined as a framework that supports multiple, optional authentication mechanisms for PPP, including cleartext passwords, challenge-response, and arbitrary dialog sequences?

Extensible Authentication Protocol

Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service

Multilevel Authentication Protocol.

Page 25 of 43

241. What is a common problem when using vibration detection devices for perimeter control?

They are vulnerable to non-adversarial disturbances.

They can be defeated by electronic means.

Signal amplitude is affected by weather conditions.

They must be buried below the frost line.

242. Which of the following security controls might force an operator into collusion with personnel assigned organizationally within a different function in order to gain access to unauthorized data?

Limiting the local access of operations personnel

Job rotation of operations personnel

Management monitoring of audit logs

Enforcing regular password changes

243. What is the name of the first mathematical model of a multi-level security policy used to define the concept of a secure state, the modes of access, and rules for granting access?

Clark and Wilson Model

Harrison-Ruzzo-Ullman Model

Rivest and Shamir Model

Bell-LaPadula Model

244. Which of the following models does NOT include data integrity or conflict of interest?

Biba

Clark-Wilson

Bell-LaPadula

Brewer-Nash

245. What is the PRIMARY use of a password?

Allow access to files.

Identify the user.

Authenticate the user.

Segregate various user's accesses.

246. The three classic ways of authenticating yourself to the computer security software are: something you know, something you have, and something:

you need.

you read.

you are.

you do.

247. An access system that grants users only those rights necessary for them to perform their work is operating on which security principle?

Discretionary Access

Least Privilege

Mandatory Access

Separation of Duties

248. Pin, Password, Passphrases, Tokens, smart cards, and biometric devices are all items that can be used for Authentication. When one of these item listed above in conjunction with a second factor to validate authentication, it provides robust authentication of the individual by practicing which of the following?

Multi-party authentication

Two-factor authentication

Mandatory authentication

Discretionary authentication

249. What is one disadvantage of content-dependent protection of information?

It increases processing overhead.

It requires additional password entry.

It exposes the system to data locking.

It limits the user's individual address space.

250. Which of the following is most appropriate to notify an internal user that session monitoring is being conducted?

Logon Banners

Wall poster

Employee Handbook

Written agreement

Page 26 of 43

251. What mechanism does a system use to compare the security labels of a subject and an object?

Validation Module.

Reference Monitor.

Clearance Check.

Security Module.

252. As per the Orange Book, what are two types of system assurance?

Operational Assurance and Architectural Assurance.

Design Assurance and Implementation Assurance.

Architectural Assurance and Implementation Assurance.

Operational Assurance and Life-Cycle Assurance.

253. Which of the following are required for Life-Cycle Assurance?

System Architecture and Design specification.

Security Testing and Covert Channel Analysis.

Security Testing and Trusted distribution.

Configuration Management and Trusted Facility Management.

254. Memory management in TCSEC levels B3 and A1 operating systems may utilize "data hiding". What does this mean?

System functions are layered, and none of the functions in a given layer can access data outside that layer.

Auditing processes and their memory addresses cannot be accessed by user processes.

Only security processes are allowed to write to ring zero memory.

It is a form of strong encryption cipher.

255. What does "System Integrity" mean?

The software of the system has been implemented as designed.

Users can't tamper with processes they do not own.

Hardware and firmware have undergone periodic testing to verify that they are functioning properly.

Design specifications have been verified against the formal top-level specification.

256. The Orange Book states that "Hardware and software features shall be provided that can be used to periodically validate the correct operation of the on-site hardware and firmware elements of the TCB [Trusted Computing Base]." This statement is the formal requirement for:

Security Testing.

Design Verification.

System Integrity.

System Architecture Specification.

257. Which of the following can be used as a covert channel?

Storage and timing.

Storage and low bits.

Storage and permissions.

Storage and classification.

258. Configuration Management controls what?

Auditing of changes to the Trusted Computing Base.

Control of changes to the Trusted Computing Base.

Changes in the configuration access to the Trusted Computing Base.

Auditing and controlling any changes to the Trusted Computing Base.

259. Which of the following exemplifies proper separation of duties?

Operators are not permitted modify the system time.

Programmers are permitted to use the system console.

Console operators are permitted to mount tapes and disks.

Tape operators are permitted to use the system console.

260. The control of communications test equipment should be clearly addressed by security policy for which of the following reasons?

Test equipment is easily damaged.

Test equipment can be used to browse information passing on a network.

Test equipment is difficult to replace if lost or stolen.

Test equipment must always be available for the maintenance personnel.

Page 27 of 43

261. Who is ultimately responsible for the security of computer based information systems within an organization?

The tech support team

The Operation Team.

The management team.

The training team.

262. The major objective of system configuration management is which of the following?

system maintenance.

system stability.

system operations.

system tracking.

263. Which must bear the primary responsibility for determining the level of protection needed for information systems resources?

IS security specialists

Senior Management

Senior security analysts

systems Auditors

264. The security of a computer application is most effective and economical in which of the following cases?

The system is optimized prior to the addition of security.

The system is procured off-the-shelf.

The system is customized to meet the specific security threat.

The system is originally designed to provide the necessary security.

265. If an operating system permits shared resources such as memory to be used sequentially by multiple users/application or subjects without a refresh of the objects/memory area, what security problem is MOST likely to exist?

Disclosure of residual data.

Unauthorized obtaining of a privileged execution state.

Data leakage through covert channels.

Denial of service through a deadly embrace.

266. The Information Technology Security Evaluation Criteria (ITSEC) was written to address which of the following that the Orange Book did not address?

integrity and confidentiality.

confidentiality and availability.

integrity and availability.

none of the above.

267. An Architecture where there are more than two execution domains or privilege levels is called:

Ring Architecture.

Ring Layering

Network Environment.

Security Models

268. Which of the following is commonly used for retrofitting multilevel security to a database management system?

trusted front-end.

trusted back-end.

controller.

kernel.

269. Who can best decide what are the adequate technical security controls in a computer-based application system in regards to the protection of the data being used, the criticality of the data, and it's sensitivity level ?

System Auditor

Data or Information Owner

System Manager

Data or Information user

270. A security evaluation report and an accreditation statement are produced in which of the following phases of the system development life cycle?

project initiation and planning phase

system design specification phase

development & documentation phase

acceptance phase

Page 28 of 43

271. Which of the following is often the greatest challenge of distributed computing solutions?

scalability

security

heterogeneity

usability

272. What is the appropriate role of the security analyst in the application system development or acquisition project?

policeman

control evaluator & consultant

data owner

application user

273. The information security staff's participation in which of the following system development life cycle phases provides maximum benefit to the organization?

project initiation and planning phase

system design specifications phase

development and documentation phase

in parallel with every phase throughout the project

274. Which of the following is NOT an example of an operational control?

backup and recovery

Auditing

contingency planning

operations procedures

275. Degaussing is used to clear data from all of the following medias except:

Floppy Disks

Read-Only Media

Video Tapes

Magnetic Hard Disks

276. It is a violation of the "separation of duties" principle when which of the following individuals access the software on systems implementing security?

security administrator

security analyst

systems auditor

systems programmer

277. When backing up an applications system's data, which of the following is a key question to be answered first?

When to make backups

Where to keep backups

What records to backup

How to store backups

278. A 'Pseudo flaw' is which of the following?

An apparent loophole deliberately implanted in an operating system program as a trap for intruders.

An omission when generating Psuedo-code.

Used for testing for bounds violations in application programming.

A normally generated page fault causing the system to halt.

279. Which of the following is considered the weakest link in a security system?

People

Software

Communications

Hardware

280. Which of the following is based on the premise that the quality of a software product is a direct function of the quality of its associated software development and maintenance processes?

The Software Capability Maturity Model (CMM)

The Spiral Model

The Waterfall Model

Expert Systems Model

Page 29 of 43

281. Which of the following determines that the product developed meets the projects goals?

verification

validation

concurrence

accuracy

282. Which of the following is the act of performing tests and evaluations to test a system's security level to see if it complies with the design specifications and security requirements?

Validation

Verification

Assessment

Accuracy

283. Which of the following refers to the data left on the media after the media has been erased?

remanence

recovery

sticky bits

semi-hidden

284. Which of the following is NOT a basic component of security architecture?

Motherboard

Central Processing Unit (CPU

Storage Devices

Peripherals (input/output devices)

285. Which of the following is a set of data processing elements that increases the performance in a computer by overlapping the steps of different instructions?

pipelining

complex-instruction-set-computer (CISC)

reduced-instruction-set-computer (RISC)

multitasking

286. Which of the following describes a computer processing architecture in which a language compiler or pre-processor breaks program instructions down into basic operations that can be performed by the processor at the same time?

Very-Long Instruction-Word Processor (VLIW)

Complex-Instruction-Set-Computer (CISC)

Reduced-Instruction-Set-Computer (RISC)

Super Scalar Processor Architecture (SCPA)

287. Which of the following addresses a portion of the primary memory by specifying the actual address of the memory location?

direct addressing

Indirect addressing

implied addressing

indexed addressing

288. Which of the following is NOT true concerning Application Control?

It limits end users use of applications in such a way that only particular screens are visible.

Only specific records can be requested through the application controls

Particular usage of the application can be recorded for audit purposes

It is non-transparent to the endpoint applications so changes are needed to the applications and databases involved

289. Which of the following are NOT a countermeasure to traffic analysis?

Padding messages.

Eavesdropping.

Sending noise.

Faraday Cage

290. Preservation of confidentiality within information systems requires that the information is not disclosed to:

Authorized person

Unauthorized persons or processes.

Unauthorized persons.

Authorized persons and processes

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291. Which of the following is not one of the three goals of Integrity addressed by the Clark-Wilson model?

Prevention of the modification of information by unauthorized users.

Prevention of the unauthorized or unintentional modification of information by authorized users.

Preservation of the internal and external consistency.

Prevention of the modification of information by authorized users.

292. External consistency ensures that the data stored in the database is:

in-consistent with the real world.

remains consistant when sent from one system to another.

consistent with the logical world.

consistent with the real world.

293. Which of the following would be best suited to oversee the development of an information security policy?

System Administrators

End User

Security Officers

Security administrators

294. Which of the following is the MOST important aspect relating to employee termination?

The details of employee have been removed from active payroll files.

Company property provided to the employee has been returned.

User ID and passwords of the employee have been deleted.

The appropriate company staff are notified about the termination.

295. Making sure that only those who are supposed to access the data can access is which of the following?

confidentiality.

capability.

integrity.

availability.

296. Related to information security, confidentiality is the opposite of which of the following?

closure

disclosure

disposal

disaster

297. Related to information security, integrity is the opposite of which of the following?

abstraction

alteration

accreditation

application

298. Making sure that the data is accessible when and where it is needed is which of the following?

confidentiality

integrity

acceptability

availability

299. Related to information security, availability is the opposite of which of the following?

delegation

distribution

documentation

destruction

300. Related to information security, the prevention of the intentional or unintentional unauthorized disclosure of contents is which of the following?

Confidentiality

Integrity

Availability

capability

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301. Related to information security, the guarantee that the message sent is the message received with the assurance that the message was not intentionally or unintentionally altered is an example of which of the following?

integrity

confidentiality

availability

identity

302. One of the following assertions is NOT a characteristic of Internet Protocol Security (IPsec)

Data cannot be read by unauthorized parties

The identity of all IPsec endpoints are confirmed by other endpoints

Data is delivered in the exact order in which it is sent

The number of packets being exchanged can be counted.

303. One of these statements about the key elements of a good configuration process is NOT true

Accommodate the reuse of proven standards and best practices

Ensure that all requirements remain clear, concise, and valid

Control modifications to system hardware in order to prevent resource changes

Ensure changes, standards, and requirements are communicated promptly and precisely

304. An area of the Telecommunications and Network Security domain that directly affects the Information Systems Security tenet of Availability can be defined as:

Netware availability

Network availability

Network acceptability

Network accountability

305. Risk analysis is MOST useful when applied during which phase of the system development process?

Project initiation and Planning

Functional Requirements definition

System Design Specification

Development and Implementation

306. Which of the following would MOST likely ensure that a system development project meets business objectives?

Development and tests are run by different individuals

User involvement in system specification and acceptance

Development of a project plan identifying all development activities

Strict deadlines and budgets

307. What is RAD?

A development methodology

A project management technique

A measure of system complexity

Risk-assessment diagramming

308. Which of the following best describes the purpose of debugging programs?

To generate random data that can be used to test programs before implementing them.

To ensure that program coding flaws are detected and corrected.

To protect, during the programming phase, valid changes from being overwritten by other changes.

To compare source code versions before transferring to the test environment

309. Which of the following would best describe the difference between white-box testing and black-box testing?

White-box testing is performed by an independent programmer team.

Black-box testing uses the bottom-up approach.

White-box testing examines the program internal logical structure.

Black-box testing involves the business units

310. Which of the following is a not a preventative control?

Deny programmer access to production data.

Require change requests to include information about dates, descriptions, cost analysis and anticipated effects.

Run a source comparison program between control and current source periodically.

Establish procedures for emergency changes.

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311. Which of the following would provide the BEST stress testing environment taking under consideration and avoiding possible data exposure and leaks of sensitive data?

Test environment using test data.

Test environment using sanitized live workloads data.

Production environment using test data.

Production environment using sanitized live workloads data.

312. Which of the following BEST explains why computerized information systems frequently fail to meet the needs of users?

Inadequate quality assurance (QA) tools.

Constantly changing user needs.

Inadequate user participation in defining the system's requirements.

Inadequate project management.

313. Which of the following would be the MOST serious risk where a systems development life cycle methodology is inadequate?

The project will be completed late.

The project will exceed the cost estimates.

The project will be incompatible with existing systems.

The project will fail to meet business and user needs.

314. Which of the following is an advantage of prototyping?

Prototype systems can provide significant time and cost savings.

Change control is often less complicated with prototype systems.

It ensures that functions or extras are not added to the intended system.

Strong internal controls are easier to implement.

315. Which of the following is a CHARACTERISTIC of a decision support system (DSS) in regards to Threats and Risks Analysis?

DSS is aimed at solving highly structured problems.

DSS emphasizes flexibility in the decision making approach of users.

DSS supports only structured decision-making tasks.

DSS combines the use of models with non-traditional data access and retrieval functions.

316. Which of the following is an advantage in using a bottom-up versus a top-down approach to software testing?

Interface errors are detected earlier.

Errors in critical modules are detected earlier.

Confidence in the system is achieved earlier.

Major functions and processing are tested earlier.

317. Which of the following would be the best reason for separating the test and development environments?

To restrict access to systems under test.

To control the stability of the test environment.

To segregate user and development staff.

To secure access to systems under development.

318. What would BEST define a covert channel?

An undocumented backdoor that has been left by a programmer in an operating system

An open system port that should be closed.

A communication channel that allows transfer of information in a manner that violates the system's security policy.

A trojan horse.

319. Which of the following is NOT an administrative control?

Logical access control mechanisms

Screening of personnel

Development of policies, standards, procedures and guidelines

Change control procedures

320. Which of the following is NOT a technical control?

Password and resource management

Identification and authentication methods

Monitoring for physical intrusion

Intrusion Detection Systems

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321. Which of the following is BEST defined as a physical control?

Monitoring of system activity

Fencing

Identification and authentication methods

Logical access control mechanisms

322. Which of the following is given the responsibility of the maintenance and protection of the data?

Data owner

Data custodian

User

Security administrator

323. Who should DECIDE how a company should approach security and what security measures should be implemented?

Senior management

Data owner

Auditor

The information security specialist

324. Which of the following is responsible for MOST of the security issues?

Outside espionage

Hackers

Personnel

Equipment failure

325. What are the three FUNDAMENTAL principles of security?

Accountability, confidentiality and integrity

Confidentiality, integrity and availability

Integrity, availability and accountability

Availability, accountability and confidentiality

326. Within the context of the CBK, which of the following provides a MINIMUM level of security ACCEPTABLE for an environment ?

A baseline

A standard

A procedure

A guideline

327. According to private sector data classification levels, how would salary levels and medical information be classified?

Public.

Internal Use Only.

Restricted.

Confidential.

328. Which of the following would be the best criterion to consider in determining the classification of an information asset?

Value

Age

Useful life

Personal association

329. Which of the following is not a responsibility of an information (data) owner?

Determine what level of classification the information requires.

Periodically review the classification assignments against business needs.

Delegate the responsibility of data protection to data custodians.

Running regular backups and periodically testing the validity of the backup data.

330. Which of the following embodies all the detailed actions that personnel are required to follow?

Standards

Guidelines

Procedures

Baselines

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331. Which of the following choices describe a condition when RAM and Secondary storage are used together?

Primary storage

Secondary storage

Virtual storage

Real storage

332. Which of the following statements pertaining to protection rings is false?

They provide strict boundaries and definitions on what the processes that work within each ring can access.

Programs operating in inner rings are usually referred to as existing in a privileged mode.

They support the CIA triad requirements of multitasking operating systems.

They provide users with a direct access to peripherals

333. What is it called when a computer uses more than one CPU in parallel to execute instructions?

Multiprocessing

Multitasking

Multithreading

Parallel running

334. What can be defined as an abstract machine that mediates all access to objects by subjects to ensure that subjects have the necessary access rights and to protect objects from unauthorized access?

The Reference Monitor

The Security Kernel

The Trusted Computing Base

The Security Domain

335. Which of the following is not a method to protect objects and the data within the objects?

Layering

Data mining

Abstraction

Data hiding

336. What is called the formal acceptance of the adequacy of a system's overall security by the management?

Certification

Acceptance

Accreditation

Evaluation

337. Which property ensures that only the intended recipient can access the data and nobody else?

Confidentiality

Capability

Integrity

Availability

338. Making sure that the data has not been changed unintentionally, due to an accident or malice is:

Integrity.

Confidentiality.

Availability.

Auditability.

339. Which of the following are the steps usually followed in the development of documents such as security policy, standards and procedures?

design, development, publication, coding, and testing.

design, evaluation, approval, publication, and implementation.

initiation, evaluation, development, approval, publication, implementation, and maintenance.

feasibility, development, approval, implementation, and integration.

340. What is the goal of the Maintenance phase in a common development process of a security policy?

to review the document on the specified review date

publication within the organization

to write a proposal to management that states the objectives of the policy

to present the document to an approving body

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341. What is the difference between Advisory and Regulatory security policies?

there is no difference between them

regulatory policies are high level policy, while advisory policies are very detailed

Advisory policies are not mandated. Regulatory policies must be implemented.

Advisory policies are mandated while Regulatory policies are not

342. What is the main purpose of Corporate Security Policy?

To transfer the responsibility for the information security to all users of the organization

To communicate management's intentions in regards to information security

To provide detailed steps for performing specific actions

To provide a common framework for all development activities

343. Which of the following is not a component of a Operations Security "triples"?

Asset

Threat

Vulnerability

Risk

344. When two or more separate entities (usually persons) operating in concert to protect sensitive functions or information must combine their knowledge to gain access to an asset, this is known as?

Dual Control

Need to know

Separation of duties

Segragation of duties

345. Which of the following is NOT a proper component of Media Viability Controls?

Storage

Writing

Handling

Marking

346. A channel within a computer system or network that is designed for the authorized transfer of information is identified as a(n)?

Covert channel

Overt channel

Opened channel

Closed channel

347. When attempting to establish Liability, which of the following would be describe as performing the ongoing maintenance necessary to keep something in proper working order, updated, effective, or to abide by what is commonly expected in a situation?

Due care

Due concern

Due diligence

Due practice

348. What can best be described as a domain of trust that shares a single security policy and single management?

The reference monitor

A security domain

The security kernel

The security perimeter

349. Which of the following describes a technique in which a number of processor units are employed in a single computer system to increase the performance of the system in its application environment above the performance of a single processor of the same kind?

Multitasking

Multiprogramming

Pipelining

Multiprocessing

350. What can best be described as an abstract machine which must mediate all access to subjects to objects?

A security domain

The reference monitor

The security kernel

The security perimeter

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351. Who is responsible for implementing user clearances in computer-based information systems at the B3 level of the TCSEC rating ?

Security administrators

Operators

Data owners

Data custodians

352. Buffer overflow and boundary condition errors are subsets of which of the following?

Race condition errors.

Access validation errors.

Exceptional condition handling errors.

Input validation errors.

353. Ensuring least privilege does not require:

Identifying what the user's job is.

Ensuring that the user alone does not have sufficient rights to subvert an important process.

Determining the minimum set of privileges required for a user to perform their duties.

Restricting the user to required privileges and nothing more.

354. Who is responsible for initiating corrective measures and capabilities used when there are security violations?

Information systems auditor

Security administrator

Management

Data owners

355. What can best be defined as high-level statements, beliefs, goals and objectives?

Standards

Policies

Guidelines

Procedures

356. In an organization, an Information Technology security function should:

Be a function within the information systems function of an organization.

Report directly to a specialized business unit such as legal, corporate security or insurance.

Be lead by a Chief Security Officer and report directly to the CE

Be independent but report to the Information Systems function.

357. IT security measures should:

Be complex

Be tailored to meet organizational security goals.

Make sure that every asset of the organization is well protected.

Not be developed in a layered fashion.

358. Which of the following does not address Database Management Systems (DBMS) Security?

Perturbation

Cell suppression

Padded cells

Partitioning

359. Which of the following security modes of operation involves the highest risk?

Compartmented Security Mode

Multilevel Security Mode

System-High Security Mode

Dedicated Security Mode

360. During which phase of an IT system life cycle are security requirements developed?

Operation

Initiation

Functional design analysis and Planning

Implementation

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361. Which of the following phases of a system development life-cycle is most concerned with establishing a good security policy as the foundation for design?

Development/acquisition

Implementation

Initiation

Maintenance

362. When considering an IT System Development Life-cycle, security should be:

Mostly considered during the initiation phase.

Mostly considered during the development phase.

Treated as an integral part of the overall system design.

Added once the design is completed.

363. Risk reduction in a system development life-cycle should be applied:

Mostly to the initiation phase.

Mostly to the development phase.

Mostly to the disposal phase.

Equally to all phases.

364. Which of the following phases of a system development life-cycle is most concerned with maintaining proper authentication of users and processes to ensure appropriate access control decisions?

Development/acquisition

Implementation

Operation/Maintenance

Initiation

365. What can be defined as: It confirms that users’ needs have been met by the supplied solution ?

Accreditation

Certification

Assurance

Acceptance

366. Which of the following statements pertaining to the security kernel is incorrect?

The security kernel is made up of mechanisms that fall under the TCB and implements and enforces the reference monitor concept.

The security kernel must provide isolation for the processes carrying out the reference monitor concept and they must be tamperproof.

The security kernel must be small enough to be able to be tested and verified in a complete and comprehensive manner.

The security kernel is an access control concept, not an actual physical component.

367. Which of the following best corresponds to the type of memory addressing where the address location that is specified in the program instruction contains the address of the final desired location?

Direct addressing

Indirect addressing

Indexed addressing

Program addressing

368. Which of the following security mode of operation does NOT require all users to have the clearance for all information processed on the system?

Compartmented security mode

Multilevel security mode

System-high security mode

Dedicated security mode

369. What prevents a process from accessing another process' data?

Memory segmentation

Process isolation

The reference monitor

Data hiding

370. What can best be defined as the sum of protection mechanisms inside the computer, including hardware, firmware and software?

Trusted system

Security kernel

Trusted computing base

Security perimeter

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371. A trusted system does NOT involve which of the following?

Enforcement of a security policy.

Sufficiency and effectiveness of mechanisms to be able to enforce a security policy.

Assurance that the security policy can be enforced in an efficient and reliable manner.

Independently-verifiable evidence that the security policy-enforcing mechanisms are sufficient and effective.

372. What can be described as an imaginary line that separates the trusted components of the TCB from those elements that are NOT trusted?

The security kernel

The reference monitor

The security perimeter

The reference perimeter

373. A Security Kernel is defined as a strict implementation of a reference monitor mechanism responsible for enforcing a security policy. To be secure, the kernel must meet three basic conditions, what are they?

Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability

Policy, mechanism, and assurance

Isolation, layering, and abstraction

Completeness, Isolation, and Verifiability

374. What can best be defined as the detailed examination and testing of the security features of an IT system or product to ensure that they work correctly and effectively and do not show any logical vulnerabilities, such as evaluation criteria?

Acceptance testing

Evaluation

Certification

Accreditation

375. Which of the following is NOT a common integrity goal?

Prevent unauthorized users from making modifications.

Maintain internal and external consistency.

Prevent authorized users from making improper modifications.

Prevent paths that could lead to inappropriate disclosure.

376. When it comes to magnetic media sanitization, what difference can be made between clearing and purging information?

Clearing completely erases the media whereas purging only removes file headers, allowing the recovery of files.

Clearing renders information unrecoverable by a keyboard attack and purging renders information unrecoverable against laboratory attack.

They both involve rewriting the media.

Clearing renders information unrecoverable against a laboratory attack and purging renders information unrecoverable to a keyboard attack.

377. What is the main issue with media reuse?

Degaussing

Data remanence

Media destruction

Purging

378. Which of the following is not appropriate in addressing object reuse?

Degaussing magnetic tapes when they're no longer needed.

Deleting files on disk before reusing the space.

Clearing memory blocks before they are allocated to a program or data.

Clearing buffered pages, documents, or screens from the local memory of a terminal or printer.

379. Who of the following is responsible for ensuring that proper controls are in place to address integrity, confidentiality, and availability of IT systems and data?

Business and functional managers

IT Security practitioners

System and information owners

Chief information officer

380. An effective information security policy should not have which of the following characteristic?

Include separation of duties

Be designed with a short- to mid-term focus

Be understandable and supported by all stakeholders

Specify areas of responsibility and authority

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381. Which of the following choice is NOT normally part of the questions that would be asked in regards to an organization's information security policy?

Who is involved in establishing the security policy?

Where is the organization's security policy defined?

What are the actions that need to be performed in case of a disaster?

Who is responsible for monitoring compliance to the organization's security policy?

382. The property of a system or a system resource being accessible and usable upon demand by an authorized system entity, according to performance specifications for the system is referred to as?

Confidentiality

Availability

Integrity

Reliability

383. Which of the following is most concerned with personnel security?

Management controls

Operational controls

Technical controls

Human resources controls

384. Which of the following would best classify as a management control?

Review of security controls

Personnel security

Physical and environmental protection

Documentation

385. Which of the following is not a form of passive attack?

Scavenging

Data diddling

Shoulder surfing

Sniffing

386. Which of the following statements pertaining to a security policy is incorrect?

Its main purpose is to inform the users, administrators and managers of their obligatory requirements for protecting technology and information assets.

It specifies how hardware and software should be used throughout the organization.

It needs to have the acceptance and support of all levels of employees within the organization in order for it to be appropriate and effective.

It must be flexible to the changing environment.

387. Which of the following statements pertaining to software testing is incorrect?

Unit testing should be addressed and considered when the modules are being designed.

Test data should be part of the specifications.

Testing should be performed with live data to cover all possible situations.

Test data generators can be used to systematically generate random test data that can be used to test programs.

388. Which of the following can be defined as the process of rerunning a portion of the test scenario or test plan to ensure that changes or corrections have not introduced new errors?

Unit testing

Pilot testing

Regression testing

Parallel testing

389. Which of the following statements pertaining to software testing approaches is correct?

A bottom-up approach allows interface errors to be detected earlier.

A top-down approach allows errors in critical modules to be detected earlier.

The test plan and results should be retained as part of the system's permanent documentation.

Black box testing is predicated on a close examination of procedural detail.

390. Which of the following test makes sure the modified or new system includes appropriate access controls and does not introduce any security holes that might compromise other systems?

Recovery testing

Security testing

Stress/volume testing

Interface testing

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391. Which of the following phases of a software development life cycle normally addresses Due Care and Due Diligence?

Implementation

System feasibility

Product design

Software plans and requirements

392. Which of the following phases of a software development life cycle normally incorporates the security specifications, determines access controls, and evaluates encryption options?

Detailed design

Implementation

Product design

Software plans and requirements

393. Which of the following is less likely to be included in the change control sub-phase of the maintenance phase of a software product?

Estimating the cost of the changes requested

Recreating and analyzing the problem

Determining the interface that is presented to the user

Establishing the priorities of requests

394. What is the act of obtaining information of a higher sensitivity by combining information from lower levels of sensitivity?

Polyinstantiation

Inference

Aggregation

Data mining

395. Which expert system operating mode allows determining if a given hypothesis is valid?

Blackboard

Lateral chaining

Forward chaining

Backward chaining

396. Why does compiled code pose more of a security risk than interpreted code?

Because malicious code can be embedded in compiled code and be difficult to detect.

If the executed compiled code fails, there is a chance it will fail insecurely.

Because compilers are not reliable.

There is no risk difference between interpreted code and compiled code.

397. Which software development model is actually a meta-model that incorporates a number of the software development models?

The Waterfall model

The modified Waterfall model

The Spiral model

The Critical Path Model (CPM)

398. Which of the following is used in database information security to hide information?

Inheritance

Polyinstantiation

Polymorphism

Delegation

399. Which of the following computer design approaches is based on the fact that in earlier technologies, the instruction fetch was the longest part of the cycle?

Pipelining

Reduced Instruction Set Computers (RISC)

Complex Instruction Set Computers (CISC)

Scalar processors

400. What is used to protect programs from all unauthorized modification or executional interference?

A protection domain

A security perimeter

Security labels

Abstraction

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401. What is called a system that is capable of detecting that a fault has occurred and has the ability to correct the fault or operate around it?

A fail safe system

A fail soft system

A fault-tolerant system

A failover system

402. What is defined as the hardware, firmware and software elements of a trusted computing base that implement the reference monitor concept?

The reference monitor

Protection rings

A security kernel

A protection domain

403. Which of the following rules is least likely to support the concept of least privilege?

The number of administrative accounts should be kept to a minimum.

Administrators should use regular accounts when performing routine operations like reading mail.

Permissions on tools that are likely to be used by hackers should be as restrictive as possible.

Only data to and from critical systems and applications should be allowed through the firewall.

404. Which of the following is an unintended communication path that is NOT protected by the system's normal security mechanisms?

A trusted path

A protection domain

A covert channel

A maintenance hook

405. Which of the following is used to interrupt the opportunity to use or perform collusion to subvert operation for fraudulent purposes?

Key escrow

Rotation of duties

Principle of need-to-know

Principle of least privilege

406. Which of the following is best defined as an administrative declaration by a designated authority that an information system is approved to operate in a particular security configuration with a prescribed set of safeguards?

Certification

Declaration

Audit

Accreditation

407. Which of the following is best defined as a circumstance in which a collection of information items is required to be classified at a higher security level than any of the individual items that comprise it?

Aggregation

Inference

Clustering

Collision

408. Which of the following best defines add-on security?

Physical security complementing logical security measures.

Protection mechanisms implemented as an integral part of an information system.

Layer security.

Protection mechanisms implemented after an information system has become operational.

409. Which of the following is best defined as a mode of system termination that automatically leaves system processes and components in a secure state when a failure occurs or is detected in a system?

Fail proof

Fail soft

Fail safe

Fail Over

410. The preliminary steps to security planning include all of the following EXCEPT which of the following?

Establish objectives.

List planning assumptions.

Establish a security audit function.

Determine alternate courses of action

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411. Step-by-step instructions used to satisfy control requirements is called a:

policy

standard

guideline

procedure

412. One purpose of a security awareness program is to modify:

employee's attitudes and behaviors towards enterprise's security posture

management's approach towards enterprise's security posture

attitudes of employees with sensitive data

corporate attitudes about safeguarding data

413. Whose role is it to assign classification level to information?

Security Administrator

User

Owner

Auditor

414. Which of the following security controls might force an operator into collusion with personnel assigned organizationally within a different function in order to gain access to unauthorized data?

Limiting the local access of operations personnel

Job rotation of operations personnel

Management monitoring of audit logs

Enforcing regular password changes

415. What is the most secure way to dispose of information on a CD-ROM?

Sanitizing

Physical damage

Degaussing

Physical destruction

416. The Reference Validation Mechanism that ensures the authorized access relationships between subjects and objects is implementing which of the following concept:

The reference monitor.

Discretionary Access Control.

The Security Kernel.

Mandatory Access Control.

417. Which of the following describes a logical form of separation used by secure computing systems?

Processes use different levels of security for input and output devices.

Processes are constrained so that each cannot access objects outside its permitted domain.

Processes conceal data and computations to inhibit access by outside processes.

Processes are granted access based on granularity of controlled objects.

418. What security problem is most likely to exist if an operating system permits objects to be used sequentially by multiple users without forcing a refresh of the objects?

Disclosure of residual data.

Unauthorized obtaining of a privileged execution state.

Denial of service through a deadly embrace.

Data leakage through covert channels.

419. At what stage of the applications development process should the security department become involved?

Prior to the implementation

Prior to systems testing

During unit testing

During requirements development

420. In what way could Java applets pose a security threat?

Their transport can interrupt the secure distribution of World Wide Web pages over the Internet by removing SSL and S-HTTP

Java interpreters do not provide the ability to limit system access that an applet could have on a client system.

Executables from the Internet may attempt an intentional attack when they are downloaded on a client system.

Java does not check the bytecode at runtime or provide other safety mechanisms for program isolation from the client system.

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421. Which of the following is needed for System Accountability?

Audit mechanisms.

Documented design as laid out in the Common Criteria.

Authorization.

Formal verification of system design.