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ISACA CCAK Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge Online Training

Question #1

Which of the following should be an assurance requirement when an organization is migrating to a Software as a Service (SaaS) provider?

  • A . Location of data
  • B . Amount of server storage
  • C . Access controls
  • D . Type of network technology

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Correct Answer: C
C

Explanation:

Access controls are an assurance requirement when an organization is migrating to a SaaS provider because they ensure that only authorized users can access the cloud services and data. Access controls also help to protect the confidentiality, integrity and availability of the cloud resources. Access controls are part of the Cloud Control Matrix (CCM) domain IAM-01: Identity and Access Management Policy and Procedures, which states that "The organization should have a policy and procedures to manage user identities and access to cloud services and data."1

Reference: CCAK Study Guide, Chapter 4: A Threat Analysis Methodology for Cloud Using CCM, page 751

Question #2

In a multi-level supply chain structure where cloud service provider A relies on other sub cloud services, the provider should ensure that any compliance requirements relevant to the provider are:

  • A . passed to the sub cloud service providers based on the sub cloud service providers’ geographic location.
  • B . passed to the sub cloud service providers.
  • C . treated as confidential information and withheld from all sub cloud service providers.
  • D . treated as sensitive information and withheld from certain sub cloud service providers.

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Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

In a multi-level supply chain structure, the cloud service provider should ensure that any compliance requirements relevant to the provider are passed to the sub cloud service providers, regardless of their geographic location. This is because the sub cloud service providers may have access to or process the data of the provider’s customers, and thus may affect the compliance status of the provider. The provider should also monitor and verify the compliance of the sub cloud service providers on a regular basis. This is part of the Cloud Control Matrix (CCM) domain COM-01: Regulatory Frameworks, which states that "The organization should identify and comply with applicable regulatory frameworks, contractual obligations, and industry standards."1

Reference: CCAK Study Guide, Chapter 3: Cloud Compliance Program, page 51

Question #3

Which of the following is the PRIMARY component to determine the success or failure of an organization’s cloud compliance program?

  • A . Defining the metrics and indicators to monitor the implementation of the compliance program
  • B . Determining the risk treatment options to be used in the compliance program
  • C . Mapping who possesses the information and data that should drive the compliance goals
  • D . Selecting the external frameworks that will be used as reference

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Correct Answer: C
C

Explanation:

The primary component to determine the success or failure of an organization’s cloud compliance program is mapping who possesses the information and data that should drive the compliance goals. This is because the cloud compliance program should be aligned with the organization’s business objectives and risk appetite, and the information and data that support these objectives and risks are often distributed across different cloud service providers, business units, and stakeholders. Therefore, it is essential to identify who owns, controls, and accesses the information and data, and how they are protected, processed, and shared in the cloud environment. This is part of the Cloud Control Matrix (CCM) domain COM-02: Data Governance, which states that "The organization should have a policy and procedures to manage data throughout its lifecycle in accordance with regulatory requirements, contractual obligations, and industry standards."1

Reference: CCAK Study Guide, Chapter 3: Cloud Compliance Program, page 53

Question #4

Organizations maintain mappings between the different control frameworks they adopt to:

  • A . help identify controls with common assessment status.
  • B . avoid duplication of work when assessing compliance,
  • C . help identify controls with different assessment status.
  • D . start a compliance assessment using the latest assessment.

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Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

Organizations maintain mappings between the different control frameworks they adopt to avoid duplication of work when assessing compliance. This is because different control frameworks may have overlapping or equivalent controls that address the same objectives or risks. By mapping these controls, organizations can streamline their compliance assessment process and reduce the cost and effort involved. Mappings also help organizations to identify any gaps or inconsistencies in their control coverage and address them accordingly. This is part of the Cloud Control Matrix (CCM) domain COM-03: Control Frameworks, which states that "The organization should identify and adopt applicable control frameworks, standards, and best practices to support the cloud compliance program."1

Reference: CCAK Study Guide, Chapter 3: Cloud Compliance Program, page 54

Question #5

To assist an organization with planning a cloud migration strategy to execution, an auditor should recommend the use of:

  • A . enterprise architecture (EA).
  • B . object-oriented architecture.
  • C . service-oriented architecture.
  • D . software architecture

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Correct Answer: A
A

Explanation:

To assist an organization with planning a cloud migration strategy to execution, an auditor should recommend the use of enterprise architecture (EA). EA is a holistic approach to aligning the business and IT objectives, processes, and resources of an organization. EA helps to define the current and future state of the organization, identify the gaps and opportunities, and design the roadmap and governance for the cloud migration. EA also helps to ensure that the cloud migration is consistent with the organization’s vision, mission, values, and strategy, and that it meets the requirements of the stakeholders, customers, and regulators. EA is part of the Cloud Control Matrix (CCM) domain GRC-01: Enterprise Risk Management, which states that "The organization should have a policy and procedures to identify, assess, manage, and monitor risks related to cloud services."1

Reference: CCAK Study Guide, Chapter 2: Cloud Governance, page 25

Question #6

The CSA STAR Certification is based on criteria outlined the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) in addition to:

  • A . ISO/IEC 27001 implementation.
  • B . GB/T 22080-2008.
  • C . SOC 2 Type 1 or 2 reports.
  • D . GDPR CoC certification.

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Correct Answer: A
A

Explanation:

The CSA STAR Certification is based on criteria outlined in the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) in addition to ISO/IEC 27001 implementation. ISO/IEC 27001 is an international standard that specifies the requirements for establishing, implementing, maintaining and continually improving an information security management system (ISMS). The CSA STAR Certification is a third-party independent assessment of the security of a cloud service provider, which demonstrates the alignment of the provider’s ISMS with the CCM best practices. The CSA STAR Certification has three levels: Level 1 (STAR Certification), Level 2 (STAR Attestation), and Level 3 (STAR Continuous Monitoring).1 [2][2]

Reference: CCAK Study Guide, Chapter 5: Cloud Auditing, page 971; CSA STAR Certification, Overview[2][2]

Question #7

What does “The Egregious 11" refer to?

  • A . The OWASP Top 10 adapted to cloud computing
  • B . A list of top shortcomings of cloud computing
  • C . A list of top breaches in cloud computing
  • D . A list of top threats to cloud computing

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Correct Answer: D
D

Explanation:

The Egregious 11 refers to a list of top threats to cloud computing, as published by the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) in 2019. The CSA is a leading organization dedicated to defining standards, certifications and best practices to help ensure a secure cloud computing environment. The Egregious 11 report ranks the most critical and pressing cloud security issues, such as data breaches, misconfigurations, insufficient identity and access management, and account hijacking. The report also provides recommendations for security, compliance, risk and technology practitioners to mitigate these threats. The Egregious 11 is based on a survey of industry experts and a review of current literature and media reports. The report is intended to raise awareness of the risks and challenges associated with cloud computing and promote strong security practices.12

Reference: CCAK Study Guide, Chapter 5: Cloud Auditing, page 961; CSA Top Threats to Cloud Computing: Egregious 11

Question #8

Which objective is MOST appropriate to measure the effectiveness of password policy?

  • A . The number of related incidents decreases.
  • B . Attempts to log with weak credentials increases.
  • C . The number of related incidents increases.
  • D . Newly created account credentials satisfy requirements.

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Correct Answer: D
D

Explanation:

The objective that is most appropriate to measure the effectiveness of password policy is newly created account credentials satisfy requirements. This is because password policy is a set of rules and guidelines that define the characteristics and usage of passwords in a system or network. Password policy aims to enhance the security and confidentiality of the system or network by preventing unauthorized access, data breaches, and identity theft. Therefore, the best way to evaluate the effectiveness of password policy is to check whether the newly created account credentials meet the requirements of the policy, such as length, complexity, expiration, and history. This objective can be measured by conducting periodic audits, reviews, or tests of the account creation process and verifying that the passwords comply with the policy standards. This is part of the Cloud Control Matrix (CCM) domain IAM-02: User ID Credentials, which states that "The organization should have a policy and procedures to manage user ID credentials for cloud services and data."1

Reference: CCAK Study Guide, Chapter 4: A Threat Analysis Methodology for Cloud Using CCM, page 76

Question #9

An auditor wants to get information about the operating effectiveness of controls addressing privacy, availability, and confidentiality of a service organization.

Which of the following can BEST help to gain the required information?

  • A . ISAE 3402 report
  • B . ISO/IEC 27001 certification
  • C . SOC1 Type 1 report
  • D . SOC2 Type 2 report

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Correct Answer: D
D

Explanation:

A SOC2 Type 2 report can best help an auditor to get information about the operating effectiveness of controls addressing privacy, availability, and confidentiality of a service organization. A SOC2 Type 2 report is an internal control report that examines the security, availability, processing integrity, confidentiality, and privacy of a service organization’s system and data over a specified period of time, typically 3-12 months. A SOC2 Type 2 report is based on the AICPA Trust Services Criteria and provides an independent auditor’s opinion on the design and operating effectiveness of the service organization’s controls. A SOC2 Type 2 report can help an auditor to assess the risks and challenges associated with outsourcing services to a cloud provider and to verify that the provider meets the relevant compliance requirements and industry standards.12

Reference: CCAK Study Guide, Chapter 5: Cloud Auditing, page 971; SOC 2 Type II Compliance: Definition, Requirements, and Why You Need It2

Question #10

Which of the following is a cloud-specific security standard?

  • A . 15027017
  • B . 15014001
  • C . 15022301
  • D . 15027701

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Correct Answer: A
A

Explanation:

ISO/IEC 15027017 is a cloud-specific security standard that provides guidelines for information security controls applicable to the provision and use of cloud services. It is based on ISO/IEC 27002, which is a general standard for information security management, but it also includes additional controls and implementation guidance that specifically relate to cloud services. ISO/IEC 15027017 is intended to help both cloud service providers and cloud service customers to enhance the security and confidentiality of their cloud environment and to comply with relevant regulatory requirements and industry standards.12

Reference: ISO/IEC 27017:2015 – Information technology ― Security techniques ― Code of practice for information security controls based on ISO/IEC 27002 for cloud services1; Cloud Security Standards: ISO, PCI, GDPR and Your Cloud – Exabeam3; ISO/IEC 27017 – Wikipedia2

Question #11

Supply chain agreements between a cloud service provider and cloud customers should, at a minimum, include:

  • A . regulatory guidelines impacting the cloud customer.
  • B . audits, assessments, and independent verification of compliance certifications with agreement terms.
  • C . the organizational chart of the provider.
  • D . policies and procedures of the cloud customer

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Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

Supply chain agreements between a cloud service provider and cloud customers should, at a minimum, include audits, assessments, and independent verification of compliance certifications with agreement terms. This is because cloud services involve multiple parties in the supply chain, such as cloud providers, sub-providers, brokers, carriers, and auditors. Each party may have different roles and responsibilities in delivering the cloud services and ensuring their quality, security, and compliance. Therefore, it is important for the cloud customers to have visibility and assurance of the performance and compliance of the cloud providers and their sub-providers. Audits, assessments, and independent verification of compliance certifications are methods to evaluate the effectiveness of the controls and processes implemented by the cloud providers and their sub-providers to meet the agreement terms. These methods can help the cloud customers to identify any gaps or risks in the supply chain and to take corrective actions if needed. This is part of the Cloud Control Matrix (CCM) domain COM-04: Audit Assurance & Compliance, which states that "The organization should have a policy and procedures to conduct audits and assessments of cloud services and data to verify compliance with applicable regulatory frameworks, contractual obligations, and industry standards."12

Reference: CCAK Study Guide, Chapter 3: Cloud Compliance Program, page 551; Practical Guide to Cloud Service Agreements Version 2.02

Question #12

Which of the following is the reason for designing the Consensus Assessments Initiative Questionnaire (CAIQ)?

  • A . Cloud service providers need the CAIQ to improve quality of customer service.
  • B . Cloud service providers can document their security and compliance controls.
  • C . Cloud service providers can document roles and responsibilities for cloud security.
  • D . Cloud users can use CAIQ to sign statement of work (SOW) with cloud access security

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Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

The reason for designing the Consensus Assessments Initiative Questionnaire (CAIQ) is to enable cloud service providers to document their security and compliance controls in a standardized and transparent way. The CAIQ is a set of yes/no questions that correspond to the controls of the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM), which is a framework of best practices for cloud security. The CAIQ helps cloud service providers to demonstrate their adherence to the CCM and to provide evidence of their security posture to potential customers, auditors, and regulators. The CAIQ also helps cloud customers and auditors to assess the security capabilities of cloud service providers and to compare different providers based on their responses. The CAIQ is part of the CSA STAR program, which is a cloud security assurance program that offers various levels of certification and attestation for cloud service providers.12

Reference: What is CAIQ? | CSA – Cloud Security Alliance3; Consensus Assessment Initiative Questionnaire (CAIQ) v3.1 [No | CSA4

Question #13

An organization employing the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) to perform a compliance assessment leverages the Scope Applicability direct mapping to:

  • A . obtain the ISO/IEC 27001 certification from an accredited certification body (CB) following the ISO/IEC 17021-1 standard.
  • B . determine whether the organization can be considered fully compliant with the mapped standards because of the implementation of every CCM Control Specification.
  • C . understand which controls encompassed by the CCM may already be partially or fully implemented because of the compliance with other standards.

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Correct Answer: C
C

Explanation:

An organization employing the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) to perform a compliance assessment leverages the Scope Applicability direct mapping to understand which controls encompassed by the CCM may already be partially or fully implemented because of the compliance with other standards. The Scope Applicability direct mapping is a worksheet within the CCM that maps the CCM control specifications to several standards within the ISO/IEC 27000 series, such as ISO/IEC 27001, ISO/IEC 27002, ISO/IEC 27017, and ISO/IEC 27018. The mapping helps the organization to identify the commonalities and differences between the CCM and the ISO/IEC standards, and to determine the level of compliance with each standard based on the implementation of the CCM controls. The mapping also helps the organization to avoid duplication of work and to streamline the compliance assessment process.12

Reference: What you need to know: Transitioning CSA STAR for Cloud Controls Matrix …1; Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) – CSA3

Question #14

Which of the following are the three MAIN phases of the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) mapping methodology?

  • A . Initiation ― Execution ― Monitoring and Controlling
  • B . Plan – Develop – Release
  • C . Preparation ― Execution – Peer Review and Publication

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Correct Answer: C
C

Explanation:

The three main phases of the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) mapping methodology are preparation, execution, and peer review and publication. The CCM mapping methodology is a process to map the CCM controls to other standards, regulations, or frameworks that are relevant for cloud security. The mapping helps to identify the commonalities and differences between the CCM and the other standards, regulations, or frameworks, and to provide guidance for cloud service providers and customers on how to achieve compliance with multiple requirements using the CCM. The mapping methodology consists of the following phases1:

Preparation: This phase involves defining the scope, objectives, and deliverables of the mapping project, as well as identifying the stakeholders, resources, and tools needed. This phase also includes conducting a preliminary analysis of the CCM and the other standard, regulation, or framework to be mapped, and establishing the mapping criteria and rules.

Execution: This phase involves performing the actual mapping of the CCM controls to the other standard, regulation, or framework using a spreadsheet template. This phase also includes documenting the mapping results, providing explanations and justifications for each mapping decision, and resolving any issues or conflicts that may arise during the mapping process.

Peer Review and Publication: This phase involves validating and verifying the quality and accuracy of the mapping results by conducting a peer review with subject matter experts from both the CCM working group and the other standard, regulation, or framework organization. This phase also includes finalizing and publishing the mapping document as a CSA artifact, and communicating and promoting the mapping to the relevant audiences.

Reference: Methodology for the Mapping of the Cloud Controls Matrix1

Question #15

When applying the Top Threats Analysis methodology following an incident, what is the scope of the technical impact identification step?

  • A . Determine the impact on confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information system.
  • B . Determine the impact on the physical and environmental security of the organization, excluding informational assets.
  • C . Determine the impact on the controls that were selected by the organization to respond to identified risks.
  • D . Determine the impact on the financial, operational, compliance, and reputation of the

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Correct Answer: A
A

Explanation:

When applying the Top Threats Analysis methodology following an incident, the scope of the technical impact identification step is to determine the impact on confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information system. The Top Threats Analysis methodology is a process developed by the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) to help organizations identify, analyze, and mitigate the top threats to cloud computing, as defined in the CSA Top Threats reports. The methodology consists of six steps1:

Scope definition: Define the scope of the analysis, such as the cloud service model, deployment model, and business context.

Threat identification: Identify the relevant threats from the CSA Top Threats reports that may affect the scope of the analysis.

Technical impact identification: Determine the impact on confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information system caused by each threat. Confidentiality refers to the protection of data from unauthorized access or disclosure. Integrity refers to the protection of data from unauthorized modification or deletion. Availability refers to the protection of data and services from disruption or denial.

Business impact identification: Determine the impact on the business objectives and operations caused by each threat, such as financial loss, reputational damage, legal liability, or regulatory compliance.

Risk assessment: Assess the likelihood and severity of each threat based on the technical and business impacts, and prioritize the threats according to their risk level.

Risk treatment: Select and implement appropriate risk treatment options for each threat, such as avoidance, mitigation, transfer, or acceptance.

The technical impact identification step is important because it helps to measure the extent of damage or harm that each threat can cause to the information system and its components. This step also helps to align the technical impacts with the business impacts and to support the risk assessment and treatment steps.

Reference: CCAK Study Guide, Chapter 4: A Threat Analysis Methodology for Cloud Using CCM, page 81

Question #16

Which of the following is an example of availability technical impact?

  • A . The cloud provider reports a breach of customer personal data from an unsecured server.
  • B . A hacker using a stolen administrator identity alters the discount percentage in the product database.
  • C . A distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack renders the customer’s cloud inaccessible for 24 hours.
  • D . An administrator inadvertently clicked on phish bait, exposing the company to a ransomware attack

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Correct Answer: C
C

Explanation:

A distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack renders the customer’s cloud inaccessible for 24 hours is an example of availability technical impact. Availability is the protection of data and services from disruption or denial, and it is one of the three dimensions of information security, along with confidentiality and integrity. Availability technical impact refers to the extent of damage or harm that a threat can cause to the availability of the information system and its components, such as servers, networks, applications, and data. A DDoS attack is a malicious attempt to overwhelm a target system with a large volume of traffic or requests from multiple sources, making it unable to respond to legitimate requests or perform its normal functions. A DDoS attack can cause a significant availability technical impact by rendering the customer’s cloud inaccessible for a prolonged period of time, resulting in loss of productivity, revenue, customer satisfaction, and reputation.

Reference: CCAK Study Guide, Chapter 4: A Threat Analysis Methodology for Cloud Using CCM, page 81; What is a DDoS Attack? | Cloudflare

Question #17

Which of the following is an example of financial business impact?

  • A . A distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack renders the customer’s cloud inaccessible for 24 hours, resulting in millions in lost sales.
  • B . A hacker using a stolen administrator identity brings down the Software of a Service (SaaS) sales and marketing systems, resulting in the inability to process customer orders or manage customer relationships.
  • C . While the breach was reported in a timely manner to the CEO, the CFO and CISO blamed each other in public, resulting in a loss of public confidence that led the board to replace all

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Correct Answer: A
A

Explanation:

A DDoS attack renders the customer’s cloud inaccessible for 24 hours, resulting in millions in lost sales is an example of financial business impact. Financial business impact refers to the extent of damage or harm that a threat can cause to the financial objectives and performance of the organization, such as revenue, profit, cash flow, or market share. A DDoS attack can cause a significant financial business impact by disrupting the normal operations and transactions of the organization, leading to loss of sales, customers, contracts, or opportunities. According to a report by Kaspersky, the average cost of a DDoS attack for small and medium-sized businesses (SMBs) was $123,000 in 2019, while for enterprises it was $2.3 million.1 Therefore, it is important for organizations to implement appropriate security measures and contingency plans to prevent or mitigate the effects of a DDoS attack.

Reference: The Future of Finance and the Global Economy: Facing Global … – IMF2; Kaspersky: Cost of a DDoS Attack1

Question #18

After finding a vulnerability in an Internet-facing server of an organization, a cybersecurity criminal is able to access an encrypted file system and successfully manages to overwrite parts of some files with random data.

In reference to the Top Threats Analysis methodology, how would the technical impact of this incident be categorized?

  • A . As an availability breach
  • B . As a control breach
  • C . As a confidentiality breach
  • D . As an integrity breach

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Correct Answer: D
D

Explanation:

The technical impact of this incident would be categorized as an integrity breach in reference to the Top Threats Analysis methodology. The Top Threats Analysis methodology is a process developed by the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) to help organizations identify, analyze, and mitigate the top threats to cloud computing, as defined in the CSA Top Threats reports. The methodology consists of six steps: scope definition, threat identification, technical impact identification, business impact identification, risk assessment, and risk treatment. Each of these provides different insights and visibility into the organization’s security posture.1

The technical impact identification step involves determining the impact on confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information system caused by each threat. Confidentiality refers to the protection of data from unauthorized access or disclosure. Integrity refers to the protection of data from unauthorized modification or deletion. Availability refers to the protection of data and services from disruption or denial.2

An integrity breach occurs when a threat compromises the accuracy and consistency of the data or system. An integrity breach can result in data corruption, falsification, or manipulation, which can affect the reliability and trustworthiness of the data or system. An integrity breach can also have serious consequences for the business operations and decisions that depend on the data or system.3 In this case, the cybersecurity criminal was able to access an encrypted file system and overwrite parts of some files with random data. This means that the data in those files was altered without authorization and became unusable or invalid. This is a clear example of an integrity breach, as it violated the principle of ensuring that data is accurate and consistent throughout its lifecycle.4

Reference: CCAK Study Guide, Chapter 4: A Threat Analysis Methodology for Cloud Using CCM, page 811; What is CIA Triad? Definition and Examples2; Data Integrity vs Data Security: What’s The Difference?3; Data Integrity: Definition & Examples

Question #19

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with hidden interdependencies between cloud services?

  • A . The IT department does not clearly articulate the cloud to the organization.
  • B . There is a lack of visibility over the cloud service providers’ supply chain.
  • C . Customers do not understand cloud technologies in enough detail.
  • D . Cloud services are very complicated.

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Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

The greatest risk associated with hidden interdependencies between cloud services is the lack of visibility over the cloud service providers’ supply chain. Hidden interdependencies are the complex and often unknown relationships and dependencies between different cloud services, providers, sub-providers, and customers. These interdependencies can create challenges and risks for the security, availability, performance, and compliance of the cloud services and data. For example, a failure or breach in one cloud service can affect other cloud services that depend on it, or a change in one cloud provider’s policy or contract can impact other cloud providers or customers that rely on it.12 The lack of visibility over the cloud service providers’ supply chain means that the customers do not have enough information or control over how their cloud services and data are delivered, managed, and protected by the providers and their sub-providers. This can expose the customers to various threats and vulnerabilities, such as data breaches, data loss, service outages, compliance violations, legal disputes, or contractual conflicts. The customers may also face difficulties in monitoring, auditing, or verifying the security and compliance status of their cloud services and data across the supply chain. Therefore, it is important for the customers to understand the hidden interdependencies between cloud services and to establish clear and transparent agreements with their cloud providers and sub-providers regarding their roles, responsibilities, expectations, and obligations.3

Reference: How to identify and map service dependencies – Gremlin1; Mitigate Risk for Data Center Network Migration – Cisco2; Practical Guide to Cloud Service Agreements Version 2.03; HIDDEN INTERDEPENDENCIES BETWEEN INFORMATION AND ORGANIZATIONAL …

Question #20

It is MOST important for an auditor to be aware that an inventory of assets within a cloud environment:

  • A . should be mapped only if discovered during the audit.
  • B . is not fundamental for the security management program, as this is a cloud service.
  • C . can be a misleading source of data.
  • D . is fundamental for the security management program

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Correct Answer: D
D

Explanation:

It is most important for an auditor to be aware that an inventory of assets within a cloud environment is fundamental for the security management program. An inventory of assets is a list of all the hardware, software, data, and services that are owned, used, or managed by an organization in the cloud. An inventory of assets helps the organization to identify, classify, and prioritize its cloud resources and to implement appropriate security controls and policies to protect them. An inventory of assets also helps the organization to comply with relevant regulations, standards, and contracts that may apply to its cloud environment.12

An auditor should be aware of the importance of an inventory of assets in the cloud because it provides a baseline for assessing the security posture and compliance status of the organization’s cloud environment. An auditor can use the inventory of assets to verify that the organization has a clear and accurate understanding of its cloud resources and their characteristics, such as location, ownership, configuration, dependencies, vulnerabilities, and risks. An auditor can also use the inventory of assets to evaluate whether the organization has implemented adequate security measures and processes to protect its cloud resources from threats and incidents. An auditor can also use the inventory of assets to identify any gaps or weaknesses in the organization’s security management program and to provide recommendations for improvement.34

Reference: Why is IT Asset Inventory Management Critical? – Fresh Security1; Use asset inventory to manage your resources’ security posture2; The importance of asset inventory in cybersecurity3; The Importance Of Asset Inventory In Cyber Security And CMDB – Visore4

Question #21

What do cloud service providers offer to encourage clients to extend the cloud platform?

  • A . Cloud console
  • B . Reward programs
  • C . Access to the cloud infrastructure
  • D . Application programming interfaces (APIs)

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Correct Answer: D
D

Explanation:

Cloud service providers offer application programming interfaces (APIs) to encourage clients to extend the cloud platform. APIs are sets of rules and protocols that define how different software components or applications can communicate and interact with each other. APIs enable clients to access the cloud services and data, integrate them with their own applications or systems, and customize or enhance their functionality and performance. APIs also allow clients to leverage the cloud platform’s features and capabilities, such as scalability, reliability, security, and analytics.12 Some examples of cloud service providers that offer APIs are Google Cloud, Microsoft Azure, Amazon Web Services (AWS), IBM Cloud, and Oracle Cloud. These providers offer various types of APIs for different purposes and domains, such as compute, storage, database, networking, artificial intelligence, machine learning, big data, internet of things, and blockchain. These APIs help clients to build, deploy, manage, and optimize their cloud applications and solutions.34567

Reference: What is an API? – Definition from WhatIs.com1; What is a Cloud API? – Definition from Techopedia2; Cloud APIs | Google Cloud3; Cloud Services – Deploy Cloud Apps & APIs | Microsoft Azure4; AWS Application Programming Interface (API) | AWS5; IBM Cloud API Docs6; Oracle Cloud Infrastructure API Documentation

Question #22

Regarding suppliers of a cloud service provider, it is MOST important for the auditor to be aware that the:

  • A . client organization has a clear understanding of the provider s suppliers.
  • B . suppliers are accountable for the provider’s service that they are providing.
  • C . client organization does not need to worry about the provider’s suppliers, as this is the provider’s responsibility.
  • D . client organization and provider are both responsible for the provider’s suppliers.

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Correct Answer: A
A

Explanation:

Regarding suppliers of a cloud service provider, it is most important for the auditor to be aware that the client organization has a clear understanding of the provider’s suppliers. This is because cloud services often involve multiple parties in the supply chain, such as cloud providers, sub-providers, brokers, carriers, and auditors. Each party may have different roles and responsibilities in delivering the cloud services and ensuring their quality, security, and compliance. Therefore, it is essential for the client organization to have visibility and assurance of the performance and compliance of the provider’s suppliers and to establish clear and transparent agreements with them regarding their roles, responsibilities, expectations, and obligations.12

An auditor should be aware of the importance of the client organization’s understanding of the provider’s suppliers because it provides a basis for assessing the risks and challenges associated with outsourcing services to a cloud provider and its supply chain. An auditor can use the client organization’s understanding of the provider’s suppliers to verify that the client organization has conducted a thorough due diligence of the provider’s suppliers and their capabilities, qualifications, certifications, and reputation. An auditor can also use the client organization’s understanding of the provider’s suppliers to evaluate whether the client organization has implemented adequate controls and processes to monitor, audit, or verify the security and compliance status of their cloud services and data across the supply chain. An auditor can also use the client organization’s understanding of the provider’s suppliers to identify any gaps or weaknesses in the client organization’s security management program and to provide recommendations for improvement.34

Reference: Practical Guide to Cloud Service Agreements Version 2.01; HIDDEN INTERDEPENDENCIES BETWEEN INFORMATION AND ORGANIZATIONAL …2; Cloud Computing: The Audit Challenge – ISACA3; Cloud Computing: Audit Considerations – AICPA4

Question #23

Which of the following MOST enhances the internal stakeholder decision-making process for the remediation of risks identified from an organization’s cloud compliance program?

  • A . Establishing ownership and accountability
  • B . Reporting emerging threats to senior stakeholders
  • C . Monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs) for multi-cloud environments
  • D . Automating risk monitoring and reporting processes

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Correct Answer: A
A

Explanation:

The most effective way to enhance the internal stakeholder decision-making process for the remediation of risks identified from an organization’s cloud compliance program is to establish ownership and accountability for each risk and its corresponding control. Ownership and accountability mean that the stakeholders who are responsible for managing, implementing, monitoring, and reporting on the cloud compliance program have clearly defined roles, responsibilities, expectations, and authorities. Ownership and accountability also mean that the stakeholders who are affected by or involved in the cloud compliance program have sufficient awareness, communication, collaboration, and feedback mechanisms. Establishing ownership and accountability helps to ensure that the risks and controls are properly identified, assessed, prioritized, treated, and reviewed in a timely and consistent manner. It also helps to foster a culture of trust, transparency, and accountability among the internal stakeholders and to align their goals

and interests with the organization’s cloud compliance objectives.1 [2][2]

Reference: CCAK Study Guide, Chapter 3: Cloud Compliance Program, page 521; Cloud Compliance:

A Framework for Using Cloud Services While Maintaining Data Protection Compliance[

Question #24

Visibility to which of the following would give an auditor the BEST view of design and implementation decisions when an organization uses programmatic automation for Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) deployments?

  • A . Source code within build scripts
  • B . Output from threat modeling exercises
  • C . Service level agreements (SLAs)
  • D . Results from automated testing

Reveal Solution Hide Solution

Correct Answer: A
A

Explanation:

Visibility to the source code within build scripts would give an auditor the best view of design and implementation decisions when an organization uses programmatic automation for Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) deployments. IaaS is a cloud service model that provides virtualized computing resources, such as servers, storage, network, and operating systems, over the internet. Programmatic automation is the process of using code or scripts to automate the provisioning, configuration, management, and monitoring of the cloud infrastructure. Build scripts are files that contain commands or instructions to create or modify the cloud infrastructure according to the desired specifications.12

An auditor can use the source code within build scripts to gain insight into how the organization designs and implements its cloud infrastructure.

The source code can reveal the following information3:

The type, size, and number of cloud resources that are provisioned and deployed

The configuration settings and parameters that are applied to the cloud resources

The security controls and policies that are enforced on the cloud resources

The dependencies and relationships between the cloud resources

The testing and validation methods that are used to verify the functionality and performance of the cloud resources

The logging and auditing mechanisms that are used to track and record the changes and activities on the cloud resources

By reviewing the source code within build scripts, an auditor can evaluate whether the organization follows the best practices and standards for cloud infrastructure design and implementation, such as scalability, reliability, security, compliance, and efficiency. An auditor can also identify any gaps or risks in the organization’s cloud infrastructure and provide recommendations for improvement.

Reference: What is Infrastructure as Code? | Cloud Computing – AWS1; What is Programmatic Automation? – Definition from Techopedia2; How to audit your IaC for better DevSecOps – TechBeacon3

Question #25

The MAIN limitation of relying on traditional cloud compliance assurance approaches such as SOC2 attestations is that:

  • A . they can only be performed by skilled cloud audit service providers.
  • B . they are subject to change when the regulatory climate changes.
  • C . they provide a point-in-time snapshot of an organization’s compliance posture.
  • D . they place responsibility for demonstrating compliance on the vendor organization.

Reveal Solution Hide Solution

Correct Answer: C
C

Explanation:

Traditional cloud compliance assurance approaches such as SOC2 attestations have the main limitation of providing a point-in-time snapshot of an organization’s compliance posture. This means that they only reflect the state of the organization’s security and compliance controls at a specific date or period, which may not be representative of the current or future state. Cloud environments are dynamic and constantly changing, and so are the threats and risks that affect them. Therefore, relying on traditional cloud compliance assurance approaches may not provide sufficient or timely assurance that the organization’s cloud services and data are adequately protected and compliant with the relevant requirements and standards.12

To overcome this limitation, some organizations adopt continuous cloud compliance assurance approaches, such as continuous monitoring, auditing, and reporting. These approaches enable the organization to collect, analyze, and report on the security and compliance status of its cloud environment in near real-time, using automated tools and processes. Continuous cloud compliance assurance approaches can help the organization to identify and respond to any changes, issues, or incidents that may affect its cloud security and compliance posture, and to maintain a high level of trust and transparency with its stakeholders, customers, and regulators.34

Reference: What is SOC 2? Complete Guide to SOC 2 Reports | CSA1; Guidance on cloud security assessment and authorization – ITSP.50.105 – Canadian Centre for Cyber Security2; Continuous Compliance: The Future of Cloud Security | CloudCheckr3; Continuous Compliance: How to Automate Cloud Security Compliance4

Question #26

An organization that is utilizing a community cloud is contracting an auditor to conduct a review on behalf of the group of organizations within the cloud community.

Of the following, to whom should the auditor report the findings?

  • A . Management of the organization being audited
  • B . Shareholders and interested parties
  • C . Cloud service provider
  • D . Public

Reveal Solution Hide Solution

Correct Answer: A
A

Explanation:

According to the ISACA Cloud Auditing Knowledge Certificate Study Guide, the auditor should report the findings to the management of the organization being audited, as they are the primary stakeholders and decision makers for the audit. The management is responsible for ensuring that the cloud service provider meets the contractual obligations and service level agreements, as well as the security and compliance requirements of the community cloud. The auditor should also communicate with the cloud service provider and other relevant parties, such as regulators or customers, as appropriate, but the final report should be addressed to the management of the organization being audited.

Reference: ISACA Cloud Auditing Knowledge Certificate Study Guide, page 17

Question #27

Which of the following standards is designed to be used by organizations for cloud services that intend to select controls within the process of implementing an information security management system based on ISO/IEC 27001?

  • A . ISO/IEC 27017:2015
  • B . ISO/IEC 27002
  • C . NIST SP 800-146
  • D . Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM)

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Correct Answer: A
A

Explanation:

ISO/IEC 27017:2015 is a standard that provides guidelines for information security controls applicable to the provision and use of cloud services by providing additional implementation guidance for relevant controls specified in ISO/IEC 27002, as well as additional controls with implementation guidance that specifically relate to cloud services1. ISO/IEC 27017:2015 is designed to be used by organizations for cloud services that intend to select controls within the process of implementing an information security management system based on ISO/IEC 270011. ISO/IEC 27001 is a standard that specifies the requirements for establishing, implementing, maintaining and continually improving an information security management system within the context of the organization.

ISO/IEC 27002 is a standard that provides a code of practice for information security controls, but it does not provide specific guidance for cloud services. NIST SP 800-146 is a publication that provides an overview of cloud computing, its characteristics, service models, deployment models, and security considerations, but it does not provide a standard for selecting controls for cloud services. CSA CCM is a framework that provides detailed understanding of security concepts and principles that are aligned to the Cloud Security Alliance guidance in 13 domains, but it is not a standard that is based on ISO/IEC 27001.

Reference: ISO/IEC 27017:2015

[ISO/IEC 27001:2013]

[ISO/IEC 27002:2013]

[NIST SP 800-146]

[CSA CCM]

Question #28

During an audit, it was identified that a critical application hosted in an off-premises cloud is not part

of the organization’s disaster recovery plan (DRP). Management stated that it is responsible for ensuring the cloud service provider has a plan that is tested annually.

What should be the auditor’s NEXT course of action?

  • A . Review the security white paper of the provider.
  • B . Review the provider’s audit reports.
  • C . Review the contract and DR capability.
  • D . Plan an audit of the provider

Reveal Solution Hide Solution

Correct Answer: C
C

Explanation:

The auditor’s next course of action should be to review the contract and DR capability of the cloud service provider. This will help the auditor to verify if the provider has a DR plan that meets the organization’s requirements and expectations, and if the provider has evidence of testing and validating the plan annually. The auditor should also check if the contract specifies the roles and responsibilities of both parties, the RTO and RPO values, the SLA terms, and the penalties for non-compliance.

Reviewing the security white paper of the provider (option A) might give some information about the provider’s security practices and controls, but it might not be sufficient or relevant to assess the DR plan. Reviewing the provider’s audit reports (option B) might also provide some assurance about the provider’s compliance with standards and regulations, but it might not address the specific DR needs of the organization. Planning an audit of the provider (option D) might be a possible course of action, but it would require more time and resources, and it might not be feasible or necessary if the contract and DR capability are already satisfactory.

Reference: Disaster recovery planning guide

Audit a Disaster Recovery Plan

How to Maintain and Test a Business Continuity and Disaster Recovery Plan

Question #29

Which of the following is the BEST tool to perform cloud security control audits?

  • A . Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM)
  • B . General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)
  • C . Federal Information Processing Standard (FIPS) 140-2
  • D . ISO 27001

Reveal Solution Hide Solution

Correct Answer: A
A

Explanation:

The CSA Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) is the best tool to perform cloud security control audits, as it is a cybersecurity control framework for cloud computing that is aligned to the CSA best practices and is considered the de-facto standard for cloud security and privacy1. The CCM provides a set of 197 control objectives that are structured in 17 domains covering all key aspects of cloud technology, such as identity and access management, data security, encryption and key management, business continuity and disaster recovery, audit assurance and compliance, and risk management1. The CCM also maps the controls to various industry-accepted security standards, regulations, and control frameworks, such as ISO 27001/27002/27017/27018, NIST SP 800-53, PCI DSS, GDPR, and others1. The CCM can be used as a tool for the systematic assessment of a cloud implementation, and provides guidance on which security controls should be implemented by which actor within the cloud supply chain1. The CCM also includes the Consensus Assessment Initiative Questionnaire (CAIQ), which provides a set of “yes or no” questions based on the security controls in the CCM that can be used to assess a cloud service provider2.

The other options are not the best tools to perform cloud security control audits, as they are either not specific to cloud computing or not comprehensive enough. GDPR is a regulation that aims to protect the personal data and privacy of individuals in the European Union and the European Economic Area3, but it does not provide a framework for cloud security controls. FIPS 140-2 is a standard that specifies the security requirements for cryptographic modules used by federal agencies in the United States, but it does not cover other aspects of cloud security. ISO 27001 is a standard that specifies the requirements for establishing, implementing, maintaining and continually improving an information security management system within the context of the organization, but it does not provide specific guidance for cloud services.

Reference: Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) – CSA

Cloud Controls Matrix and CAIQ v4 | CSA – Cloud Security Alliance General Data Protection Regulation – Wikipedia

[FIPS 140-2 – Wikipedia]

[ISO/IEC 27001:2013]

Question #30

When an organization is using cloud services, the security responsibilities largely vary depending on the service delivery model used, while the accountability for compliance should remain with the:

  • A . cloud user.
  • B . cloud service provider. 0
  • C . cloud customer.
  • D . certification authority (CA)

Reveal Solution Hide Solution

Correct Answer: C
C

Explanation:

According to the ISACA Cloud Auditing Knowledge Certificate Study Guide, the cloud customer is the entity that retains accountability for the business outcome of the system or the processes that are supported by the cloud service1. The cloud customer is also responsible for ensuring that the cloud service meets the legal, regulatory, and contractual obligations that apply to the customer’s business context1. The cloud customer should also perform due diligence and risk assessment before selecting a cloud service provider, and establish a clear and enforceable contract that defines the roles and responsibilities of both parties1.

The cloud user is the entity that uses the cloud service on behalf of the cloud customer, but it is not necessarily accountable for the compliance of the service1. The cloud service provider is the entity that makes the cloud service available to the cloud customer, but it is not accountable for the compliance of the customer’s business context1. The certification authority (CA) is an entity that issues digital certificates to verify the identity or authenticity of other entities, but it is not accountable for the compliance of the cloud service2.

Reference: ISACA Cloud Auditing Knowledge Certificate Study Guide, page 10-11.

Certification authority – Wikipedia

Question #31

A cloud service provider utilizes services of other service providers for its cloud service.

Which of the following is the BEST approach for the auditor while performing the audit for the cloud service?

  • A . The auditor should review the service providers’ security controls even more strictly, as they are further separated from the cloud customer.
  • B . The auditor should review the relationship between the cloud service provider and its service provider to help direct and estimate the level of effort and analysis the auditor should apply.
  • C . As the contract for the cloud service is between the cloud customer and the cloud service provider, there is no need for the auditor to review the services provided by the service providers.
  • D . As the relationship between the cloud service provider and its service providers is governed by separate contracts between them, there is no need for the auditor to review the services

Reveal Solution Hide Solution

Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

According to the ISACA Cloud Auditing Knowledge Certificate Study Guide, the auditor should review the relationship between the cloud service provider and its service provider to help direct and estimate the level of effort and analysis the auditor should apply1. The auditor should understand the nature and scope of the services provided by the service provider, the contractual obligations and service level agreements, the security and compliance requirements, and the monitoring and reporting mechanisms. The auditor should also assess the risks and controls associated with the service provider, and determine if additional audit procedures are needed to obtain sufficient assurance.

The other options are not the best approach for the auditor.

Option A is too strict and might not be feasible or necessary, depending on the type and level of services provided by the service provider.

Option C is too lax and might overlook significant risks and gaps in the cloud service.

Option D is too narrow and might ignore the impact of the service provider on the cloud customer’s business context.

Reference: ISACA Cloud Auditing Knowledge Certificate Study Guide, page 13-14.

Question #32

The PRIMARY objective for an auditor to understand the organization’s context for a cloud audit is to:

  • A . determine whether the organization has carried out control self-assessment (CSA) and validated audit reports of the cloud service providers.
  • B . validate an understanding of the organization’s current state and how the cloud audit plan fits into the existing audit approach.
  • C . validate the organization’s performance effectiveness utilizing cloud service provider solutions.
  • D . validate whether an organization has a cloud audit plan in place.

Reveal Solution Hide Solution

Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

According to the ISACA Cloud Auditing Knowledge Certificate Study Guide, the primary objective for an auditor to understand the organization’s context for a cloud audit is to validate an understanding of the organization’s current state and how the cloud audit plan fits into the existing audit approach1. The auditor should consider the organization’s business objectives, strategies, risks, and opportunities, as well as the regulatory and contractual requirements that apply to the organization’s use of cloud services. The auditor should also assess the organization’s cloud maturity level, governance structure, policies and procedures, roles and responsibilities, and existing controls related to cloud services. The auditor should then align the cloud audit plan with the organization’s context and ensure that it covers the relevant scope, objectives, criteria, and methodology.

The other options are not the primary objective for an auditor to understand the organization’s context for a cloud audit.

Option A is a possible audit procedure, but not the main goal of understanding the organization’s context.

Option C is a possible audit outcome, but not the main purpose of understanding the organization’s context.

Option D is a possible audit finding, but not the main reason for understanding the organization’s context.

Reference: ISACA Cloud Auditing Knowledge Certificate Study Guide, page 12-13.

Question #33

During the planning phase of a cloud audit, the PRIMARY goal of a cloud auditor is to:

  • A . specify appropriate tests.
  • B . address audit objectives.
  • C . minimize audit resources.
  • D . collect sufficient evidence.

Reveal Solution Hide Solution

Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

According to the ISACA Cloud Auditing Knowledge Certificate Study Guide, the primary goal of a cloud auditor during the planning phase of a cloud audit is to address audit objectives1. The audit objectives are the specific questions that the audit aims to answer, such as whether the cloud service meets the security, compliance, performance, and availability requirements of the cloud customer. The audit objectives should be aligned with the organization’s context, risk appetite, and expectations. The audit objectives should also be clear, measurable, achievable, relevant, and timely. The other options are not the primary goal of a cloud auditor during the planning phase of a cloud audit.

Option A is a possible activity, but not the main goal of the planning phase. The appropriate tests are determined based on the audit objectives, criteria, and methodology.

Option C is a possible constraint, but not the main goal of the planning phase. The audit resources should be allocated based on the audit scope, complexity, and significance.

Option D is a possible outcome, but not the main goal of the planning phase. The sufficient evidence is collected during the execution phase of the audit, based on the audit plan.

Reference: ISACA Cloud Auditing Knowledge Certificate Study Guide, page 12-13.

Question #34

An auditor examining a cloud service provider’s service level agreement (SLA) should be MOST concerned about whether:

  • A . the agreement includes any operational matters that are material to the service operations.
  • B . the agreement excludes any sourcing and financial matters that are material in meeting the service level agreement (SLA).
  • C . the agreement includes any service availability matters that are material to the service operations.
  • D . the agreement excludes any operational matters that are material to the service operations

Reveal Solution Hide Solution

Correct Answer: D
D

Explanation:

An auditor examining a cloud service provider’s SLA should be most concerned about whether the agreement excludes any operational matters that are material to the service operations, as this could indicate a lack of transparency, accountability, and quality assurance from the provider. Operational matters are the aspects of the cloud service that affect its functionality, performance, availability, reliability, security, and compliance. Examples of operational matters include service scope, roles and responsibilities, service levels and metrics, monitoring and reporting mechanisms, incident and problem management, change management, backup and recovery, data protection and privacy, and termination and exit clauses12. These matters are material to the service operations if they have a significant impact on the achievement of the service objectives and expectations of the cloud customer. The auditor should verify that the SLA covers all the relevant and material operational matters in a clear and comprehensive manner, and that the provider adheres to the SLA terms and conditions.

The other options are not the most concerning for the auditor.

Option A is a desirable feature of an SLA, but not a concern if it is missing.

Option B is an unrealistic expectation of an SLA, as sourcing and financial matters are usually essential in meeting the SLA.

Option C is a specific example of an operational matter that is material to the service operations, but not the only one that should be included in the SLA.

Reference: Cloud Services Due Diligence Checklist

Cloud Computing: Agencies Need to Incorporate Key Practices to Ensure Effective Performance

Question #35

A cloud auditor should use statistical sampling rather than judgment (nonstatistical) sampling when:

  • A . generalized audit software is unavailable.
  • B . the auditor wants to avoid sampling risk.
  • C . the probability of error must be objectively quantified.
  • D . the tolerable error rate cannot be determined.

Reveal Solution Hide Solution

Correct Answer: C
C

Explanation:

According to the ISACA Cloud Auditing Knowledge Certificate Study Guide, a cloud auditor should use statistical sampling rather than judgment (nonstatistical) sampling when the probability of error must be objectively quantified1. Statistical sampling is a sampling technique that uses random selection methods and mathematical calculations to draw conclusions about the population from the sample results. Statistical sampling allows the auditor to measure the sampling risk, which is the risk that the sample results do not represent the population, and to express the confidence level and precision of the sample1. Statistical sampling also enables the auditor to estimate the rate of exceptions or errors in the population based on the sample1.

The other options are not valid reasons for using statistical sampling rather than judgment sampling.

Option A is irrelevant, as generalized audit software is a tool that can facilitate both statistical and judgment sampling, but it is not a requirement for either technique.

Option B is incorrect, as statistical sampling does not avoid sampling risk, but rather measures and controls it.

Option D is illogical, as the tolerable error rate is a parameter that must be determined before conducting any sampling technique, whether statistical or judgmental.

Reference: ISACA Cloud Auditing Knowledge Certificate Study Guide, page 17-18.

Question #36

The FINAL decision to include a material finding in a cloud audit report should be made by the:

  • A . auditee’s senior management.
  • B . organization’s chief executive officer (CEO).
  • C . cloud auditor.
  • D . organization’s chief information security officer (CISO)

Reveal Solution Hide Solution

Correct Answer: C
C

Explanation:

According to the ISACA Cloud Auditing Knowledge Certificate Study Guide, the final decision to include a material finding in a cloud audit report should be made by the cloud auditor1. A material finding is a significant error or risk in the cloud service that could affect the achievement of the audit objectives or the cloud customer’s business outcomes. The cloud auditor is responsible for identifying, evaluating, and reporting the material findings based on the audit criteria, methodology, and evidence. The cloud auditor should also communicate the material findings to the auditee and other relevant stakeholders, and obtain their feedback and responses.

The other options are not correct.

Option A is incorrect, as the auditee’s senior management is not in charge of the audit report, but rather the subject of the audit. The auditee’s senior management should provide their perspective and action plans for the material findings, but they cannot decide whether to include or exclude them from the report.

Option B is incorrect, as the organization’s CEO is not involved in the audit process, but rather the ultimate recipient of the audit report. The organization’s CEO should review and act upon the audit report, but they cannot influence the content of the report.

Option D is incorrect, as the organization’s CISO is not an independent party, but rather a stakeholder of the audit. The organization’s CISO should support and collaborate with the cloud auditor, but they cannot make the final decision on the material findings.

Reference: ISACA Cloud Auditing Knowledge Certificate Study Guide, page 19-20.

Question #37

What aspect of Software as a Service (SaaS) functionality and operations would the cloud customer be responsible for and should be audited?

  • A . Access controls
  • B . Vulnerability management
  • C . Patching
  • D . Source code reviews

Reveal Solution Hide Solution

Correct Answer: A
A

Explanation:

According to the cloud shared responsibility model, the cloud customer is responsible for managing the access controls for the SaaS functionality and operations, and this should be audited by the cloud auditor12. Access controls are the mechanisms that restrict and regulate who can access and use the SaaS applications and data, and how they can do so. Access controls include identity and access management, authentication, authorization, encryption, logging, and monitoring. The cloud customer is responsible for defining and enforcing the access policies, roles, and permissions for the SaaS users, as well as ensuring that the access controls are aligned with the security and compliance requirements of the customer’s business context12.

The other options are not the aspects of SaaS functionality and operations that the cloud customer is

responsible for and should be audited.

Option B is incorrect, as vulnerability management is the process of identifying, assessing, and mitigating the security weaknesses in the SaaS applications and infrastructure, and this is usually handled by the cloud service provider12.

Option C is incorrect, as patching is the process of updating and fixing the SaaS applications and infrastructure to address security issues or improve performance, and this is also usually handled by the cloud service provider12.

Option D is incorrect, as source code reviews are the process of examining and testing the SaaS applications’ source code to detect errors or vulnerabilities, and this is also usually handled by the cloud service provider12.

Reference: Shared responsibility in the cloud – Microsoft Azure

The Customer’s Responsibility in the Cloud Shared Responsibility Model – ISACA

Question #38

What areas should be reviewed when auditing a public cloud?

  • A . Identity and access management (IAM) and data protection
  • B . Source code reviews and hypervisor
  • C . Patching and configuration
  • D . Vulnerability management and cyber security reviews

Reveal Solution Hide Solution

Correct Answer: A
A

Explanation:

When auditing a public cloud, it is essential to review areas such as Identity and Access Management (IAM) and data protection. IAM involves ensuring that only authorized individuals have access to the cloud resources, and that their access is appropriately managed and monitored. This includes reviewing user authentication methods, access control policies, role-based access controls, and user activity monitoring1.

Data protection is another critical area to review. It involves ensuring that the data stored in the public cloud is secure from unauthorized access, breaches, and leaks. This includes reviewing data encryption methods, data backup and recovery processes, data privacy policies, and compliance with relevant data protection regulations1.

While the other options may also be relevant in certain contexts, they are not as universally applicable as IAM and data protection for auditing a public cloud. Source code reviews and hypervisor (option B), patching and configuration (option C), and vulnerability management and cybersecurity reviews (option D) are important but are more specific to certain types of cloud services or deployment models.

Reference: Cloud Computing ― What IT Auditors Should Really Know – ISACA

Question #39

Which of the following aspects of risk management involves identifying the potential reputational and financial harm when an incident occurs?

  • A . Impact analysis
  • B . Likelihood
  • C . Mitigation
  • D . Residual risk

Reveal Solution Hide Solution

Correct Answer: A
A

Explanation:

According to the web search results, impact analysis is the aspect of risk management that involves identifying the potential reputational and financial harm when an incident occurs. Impact analysis is the process of assessing the probabilities and consequences of risk events if they are realized1. Impact analysis helps to understand how project outcomes and objectives might change due to the impact of the risk event, and to measure the severity of the risk impact in terms of cost, schedule, quality, and other factors23. Impact analysis also helps to prioritize the risks and plan appropriate responses and controls23.

The other options are not correct. Likelihood is the aspect of risk management that involves estimating the probability or frequency of a risk event occurring23. Mitigation is the aspect of risk management that involves implementing actions or controls to reduce the likelihood or impact of a risk event23. Residual risk is the aspect of risk management that involves measuring the remaining risk after applying mitigation actions or controls23.

Reference: Risk Analysis: Definition, Examples and Methods – ProjectManager

Risk Assessment and Analysis Methods: Qualitative and Quantitative – ISACA

Systems Engineering: Risk Impact Assessment and Prioritization

Question #40

Which of the following would be the MOST critical finding of an application security and DevOps audit?

  • A . Certifications with global security standards specific to cloud are not reviewed, and the impact of noted findings are not assessed.
  • B . Application architecture and configurations did not consider security measures.
  • C . Outsourced cloud service interruption, breach, or loss of stored data occurred at the cloud service provider.
  • D . The organization is not using a unified framework to integrate cloud compliance with regulatory requirements

Reveal Solution Hide Solution

Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

According to the web search results, the most critical finding of an application security and DevOps audit would be that the application architecture and configurations did not consider security measures. This finding indicates a serious lack of security by design and security by default principles, which are essential for ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the application and its data. If the application architecture and configurations are not secure, they could expose the application to various threats and vulnerabilities, such as unauthorized access, data breaches, denial-of-service attacks, injection attacks, cross-site scripting attacks, and others. This finding could also result in non-compliance with relevant security standards and regulations, such as ISO 27001, PCI DSS, GDPR, and others. Therefore, this finding should be addressed with high priority and urgency by implementing appropriate security measures and controls in the application architecture and configurations.

The other options are not as critical as option B.

Option A is a moderate finding that indicates a lack

of awareness and assessment of the global security standards specific to cloud, such as ISO 27017, ISO 27018, CSA CCM, NIST SP 800-53, and others. This finding could affect the security and compliance of the cloud services used by the application, but it does not directly impact the application itself.

Option C is a severe finding that indicates a major incident that occurred at the cloud service provider level, such as a service interruption, breach, or loss of stored data. This finding could affect the availability, confidentiality, and integrity of the application and its data, but it is not caused by the application itself.

Option D is a minor finding that indicates a lack of efficiency and consistency in integrating cloud compliance with regulatory requirements. This finding could affect the compliance posture of the application and its data, but it does not directly impact the security or functionality of the application.

Reference: [Application Security Best Practices – OWASP]

[DevSecOps: What It Is and How to Get Started – ISACA]

[Cloud Security Standards: What to Expect & What to Negotiate – CSA] [Cloud Computing Security Audit – ISACA] [Cloud Computing Incident Response – ISACA]

[Cloud Compliance: A Framework for Using Cloud Services While Maintaining Compliance – ISACA]

Question #41

What legal documents should be provided to the auditors in relation to risk management?

  • A . Enterprise cloud strategy and policy
  • B . Contracts and service level agreements (SLAs) of cloud service providers
  • C . Policies and procedures established around third-party risk assessments
  • D . Inventory of third-party attestation reports

Reveal Solution Hide Solution

Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

Contracts and SLAs are legal documents that define the roles, responsibilities, expectations, and obligations of both the cloud service provider (CSP) and the cloud customer. They also specify the terms and conditions for service delivery, performance, availability, security, compliance, data protection, incident response, dispute resolution, liability, and termination. An auditor should review these documents to assess the alignment of the CSP’s services with the customer’s business requirements and risk appetite, as well as to identify any gaps or inconsistencies that may pose legal risks.

Reference: ISACA, Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge (CCAK) Study Guide, 2021, p. 35-36 Cloud Security Alliance (CSA), Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) v4.0, 2021, GRM-01: Contracts and SLAs

Question #42

In relation to testing business continuity management and operational resilience, an auditor should review which of the following database documentation?

  • A . Database backup and replication guidelines
  • B . System backup documentation
  • C . Incident management documentation
  • D . Operational manuals

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Correct Answer: A
A

Explanation:

Database backup and replication guidelines are essential for ensuring the availability and integrity of data in the event of a disruption or disaster. They describe how the data is backed up, stored, restored, and synchronized across different locations and platforms. An auditor should review these guidelines to verify that they are aligned with the business continuity objectives, policies, and procedures of the organization and the cloud service provider. The auditor should also check that the backup and replication processes are tested regularly and that the results are documented and reported.

Reference: ISACA, Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge (CCAK) Study Guide, 2021, p. 96 Cloud Security Alliance (CSA), Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) v4.0, 2021, BCR-01: Business Continuity Planning/Resilience

Question #43

The MOST critical concept for managing the building and testing of code in DevOps is:

  • A . continuous build.
  • B . continuous delivery.
  • C . continuous integration.
  • D . continuous deployment.

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Correct Answer: C
C

Explanation:

Continuous integration (CI) is the most critical concept for managing the building and testing of code in DevOps. CI is the practice of merging all developers’ working copies of code to a shared mainline several times a day. This enables early detection and resolution of bugs, conflicts, and errors, as well as faster and more frequent feedback loops. CI also facilitates the automation of building, testing, and deploying code, which improves the quality, reliability, and security of the software delivery process. CI is a prerequisite for continuous delivery (CD) and continuous deployment (CD), which are the next stages of DevOps maturity that aim to deliver software to customers faster and more frequently.

Reference: ISACA, Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge (CCAK) Study Guide, 2021, p. 114-115

Cloud Security Alliance (CSA), Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) v4.0, 2021, DCS-01: Datacenter Security – Build and Test

What is Continuous Integration?

Continuous Integration vs Continuous Delivery vs Continuous Deployment

Question #44

What is a sign that an organization has adopted a shift-left concept of code release cycles?

  • A . Large entities with slower release cadences and geographically dispersed systems
  • B . A waterfall model to move resources through the development to release phases
  • C . Maturity of start-up entities with high-iteration to low-volume code commits
  • D . Incorporation of automation to identify and address software code problems early

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Correct Answer: D
D

Explanation:

The shift-left concept of code release cycles is an approach that moves testing, quality, and performance evaluation early in the development process, often before any code is written. The goal of shift-left testing is to anticipate and resolve software defects, bugs, errors, and vulnerabilities as soon as possible, reducing the cost and time of fixing them later in the production stage. To achieve this, shift-left testing relies on automation tools and techniques that enable continuous integration, continuous delivery, and continuous deployment of code. Automation also facilitates collaboration and feedback among developers, testers, security experts, and other stakeholders throughout the development lifecycle. Therefore, the incorporation of automation to identify and address software code problems early is a sign that an organization has adopted a shift-left concept of code release cycles.

Reference: The ‘Shift Left’ Is A Growing Theme For Cloud Cybersecurity In 2022 Shift left vs shift right: A DevOps mystery solved How to shift left with continuous integration

Question #45

Which of the following can be used to determine whether access keys are stored in the source code or any other configuration files during development?

  • A . Static code review
  • B . Dynamic code review
  • C . Vulnerability scanning
  • D . Credential scanning

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Correct Answer: D
D

Explanation:

Credential scanning is a technique that can be used to detect and prevent the exposure of access keys and other sensitive information in the source code or any other configuration files during development. Credential scanning tools can scan the code repositories, files, and commits for any hardcoded credentials, such as access keys, passwords, tokens, certificates, and connection strings. They can also alert the developers or security teams of any potential leaks and suggest remediation actions, such as rotating or revoking the compromised keys, removing the credentials from the code, or using secure storage mechanisms like vaults or environment variables. Credential scanning can be integrated into the development pipeline as part of the continuous integration and continuous delivery (CI/CD) process, or performed periodically as a security audit. Credential scanning can help reduce the risk of credential leakage, which can lead to unauthorized access, data breaches, or account compromise.

Reference: Protecting Source Code in the Cloud with DSPM

Best practices for managing service account keys

Protect your code repository

Question #46

What is an advantage of using dynamic application security testing (DAST) over static application security testing (SAST) methodology?

  • A . DAST is slower but thorough.
  • B . Unlike SAST, DAST is a black box and programming language agnostic.
  • C . DAST can dynamically integrate with most continuous integration and continuous delivery (CI/CD) tools.
  • D . DAST delivers more false positives than SAST

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Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

Dynamic application security testing (DAST) is a method of testing the security of an application by simulating attacks from an external source. DAST does not require access to the source code or binaries of the application, unlike static application security testing (SAST), which analyzes the code for vulnerabilities. Therefore, DAST is a black box testing technique, meaning that it does not need any knowledge of the internal structure, design, or implementation of the application. DAST is also programming language agnostic, meaning that it can test applications written in any language, framework, or platform. This makes DAST more flexible and adaptable to different types of applications and environments. However, DAST also has some limitations, such as being slower, less accurate, and more dependent on the availability and configuration of the application.

Reference: SAST vs. DAST: What’s the Difference?

SAST vs DAST: What’s the Difference?

SAST vs. DAST: Enhancing application security

Question #47

Which of the following BEST ensures adequate restriction on the number of people who can access the pipeline production environment?

  • A . Separation of production and development pipelines
  • B . Ensuring segregation of duties in the production and development pipelines
  • C . Role-based access controls in the production and development pipelines
  • D . Periodic review of the continuous integration and continuous delivery (CI/CD) pipeline audit logs to identify any access violations

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Correct Answer: C
C

Explanation:

Role-based access controls (RBAC) are a method of restricting access to resources based on the roles of individual users within an organization. RBAC allows administrators to assign permissions to roles, rather than to specific users, and then assign users to those roles. This simplifies the management of access rights and reduces the risk of unauthorized or excessive access. RBAC is especially important for ensuring adequate restriction on the number of people who can access the pipeline production environment, which is the final stage of the continuous integration and continuous delivery (CI/CD) process where code is deployed to the end-users. Access to the production environment should be limited to only those who are responsible for deploying, monitoring, and maintaining the code, such as production engineers, release managers, or site reliability engineers. Developers, testers, or other stakeholders should not have access to the production environment, as this could compromise the security, quality, and performance of the code. RBAC can help enforce this separation of duties and responsibilities by defining different roles for different pipeline stages and granting appropriate permissions to each role. For example, developers may have permission to create, edit, and test code in the development pipeline, but not to deploy or modify code in the production pipeline.

Conversely, production engineers may have permission to deploy, monitor, and troubleshoot code in the production pipeline, but not to create or edit code in the development pipeline. RBAC can also help implement the principle of least privilege, which states that users should only have the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks. This reduces the attack surface and minimizes the potential damage in case of a breach or misuse. RBAC can be configured at different levels of granularity, such as at the organization, project, or object level, depending on the needs and complexity of the organization. RBAC can also leverage existing identity and access management (IAM) solutions, such as Azure Active Directory or AWS IAM, to integrate with cloud services and applications.

Reference: Set pipeline permissions – Azure Pipelines

Azure DevOps: Access, Roles and Permissions

Cloud Computing ― What IT Auditors Should Really Know

Question #48

The PRIMARY purpose of Open Certification Framework (OCF) for the CSA STAR program is to:

  • A . facilitate an effective relationship between the cloud service provider and cloud client.
  • B . enable the cloud service provider to prioritize resources to meet its own requirements.
  • C . provide global, accredited, and trusted certification of the cloud service provider.
  • D . ensure understanding of true risk and perceived risk by the cloud service users

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Correct Answer: C
C

Explanation:

The primary purpose of the Open Certification Framework (OCF) for the CSA STAR program is to provide global, accredited, and trusted certification of the cloud service provider. According to the CSA website1, the OCF is an industry initiative to allow global, trusted independent evaluation of cloud providers. It is a program for flexible, incremental and multi-layered cloud provider certification and/or attestation according to the Cloud Security Alliance’s industry leading security guidance and control framework. The OCF aims to address the gaps within the IT ecosystem that are inhibiting market adoption of secure and reliable cloud services. The OCF also integrates with popular third-party assessment and attestation statements developed within the public accounting community to avoid duplication of effort and cost. The OCF manages the foundation that runs and monitors the CSA STAR Certification program, which is an assurance framework that enables cloud service providers to embed cloud-specific security controls. The STAR Certification program has three levels of assurance, each based on a different type of audit or assessment: Level 1: Self-Assessment, Level 2: Third-Party Audit, and Level 3: Continuous Auditing. The OCF also oversees the CSA STAR Registry, which is a publicly accessible repository that documents the security controls provided by various cloud computing offerings2. The OCF helps consumers to evaluate and compare their providers’ resilience, data protection, privacy capabilities, and service portability. It also helps providers to demonstrate their compliance with industry standards and best practices.

Reference: Open Certification Framework Working Group | CSA

STAR | CSA

Question #49

An auditor identifies that a cloud service provider received multiple customer inquiries and requests for proposal (RFPs) during the last month.

Which of the following What should be the BEST recommendation to reduce the provider’s burden?

  • A . The provider can answer each customer individually.
  • B . The provider can direct all customer inquiries to the information in the CSA STAR registry.
  • C . The provider can schedule a call with each customer.
  • D . The provider can share all security reports with customers to streamline the process

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Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

The CSA STAR registry is a publicly accessible registry that documents the security and privacy controls provided by popular cloud computing offerings. The registry is based on the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM), which is a framework of cloud-specific security best practices, and the GDPR Code of Conduct, which is a set of privacy principles for cloud service providers. The registry allows cloud customers to assess the security and compliance posture of cloud service providers, as well as to compare different providers based on their level of assurance. The registry also reduces the complexity and cost of filling out multiple customer questionnaires and requests for proposal (RFPs). Therefore, the best recommendation to reduce the provider’s burden is to direct all customer inquiries to the information in the CSA STAR registry, which can demonstrate the provider’s transparency, trustworthiness, and adherence to industry standards. The provider can also encourage customers to use the Consensus Assessments Initiative Questionnaire (CAIQ), which is a standardized set of questions based on the CCM, to evaluate the provider’s security controls. Alternatively, the provider can pursue higher levels of assurance, such as third-party audits or continuous monitoring, to further validate their security and privacy practices and increase customer confidence.

Reference: STAR Registry | CSA

STAR | CSA

CSA Security Trust Assurance and Risk (STAR) Registry Reaches Notable … Why CSA STAR Is Important for Cloud Service Providers – A-LIGN

Question #50

Which of the following is the MOST important audit scope document when conducting a review of a cloud service provider?

  • A . Documentation criteria for the audit evidence
  • B . Testing procedure to be performed
  • C . Processes and systems to be audited
  • D . Updated audit work program

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Correct Answer: C
C

Explanation:

The most important audit scope document when conducting a review of a cloud service provider is the document that defines the processes and systems to be audited. This document should clearly identify the objectives, criteria, and boundaries of the audit, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the audit team and the cloud service provider. The document should also specify the scope of the cloud service provider’s services, such as the service model, deployment model, geographic location, data classification, and compliance requirements. The document should also describe the scope of the audit evidence, such as the types, sources, methods, and sampling techniques of data collection and analysis. The document should also state the expected deliverables, timelines, and reporting formats of the audit. The document should be agreed upon by both parties before the audit commences.

The document that defines the processes and systems to be audited is essential for ensuring that the audit is relevant, reliable, consistent, and complete. It helps to establish a common understanding and expectation between the auditor and the auditee, as well as to avoid any misunderstandings or conflicts during or after the audit. It also helps to focus the audit on the key risks and controls related to the cloud service provider’s operations and performance. It also helps to ensure that the audit complies with the applicable standards, frameworks, and regulations.

Reference: Cloud Audits and Compliance: What You Need To Know – Linford & Company LLP

How to audit the cloud | ICAEW

Auditing Cloud Computing: A Security and Privacy Guide

Question #51

The BEST method to report continuous assessment of a cloud provider’s services to the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) is through:

  • A . Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) assessment by a third-party auditor on a periodic basis.
  • B . tools selected by the third-party auditor.
  • C . SOC 2 Type 2 attestation.
  • D . a set of dedicated application programming interfaces (APIs).

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Correct Answer: D
D

Explanation:

The best method to report continuous assessment of a cloud provider’s services to the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) is through a set of dedicated application programming interfaces (APIs). According to the CSA website1, the STAR Continuous program is a component of the STAR certification that allows cloud service providers to validate their security posture on an ongoing basis. The STAR Continuous program leverages a set of APIs that can integrate with the cloud provider’s existing tools and processes, such as security information and event management (SIEM), governance, risk management, and compliance (GRC), or continuous monitoring systems. The APIs enable the cloud provider to collect, analyze, and report security-related data to the CSA STAR registry in near real-time. The APIs also allow the CSA to verify the data and provide feedback to the cloud provider and the customers. The STAR Continuous program aims to provide more transparency, assurance, and trust in the cloud ecosystem by enabling continuous visibility into the security performance of cloud services.

The other methods listed are not suitable for reporting continuous assessment of a cloud provider’s services to the CSA. The Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) assessment by a third-party auditor on a periodic basis is part of the STAR Certification Level 2 program, which provides a point-in-time validation of the cloud provider’s security controls. However, this method does not provide continuous assessment or reporting, as it only occurs once every 12 or 24 months2. The tools selected by the third-party auditor may vary depending on the scope, criteria, and methodology of the audit, and they may not be compatible or consistent with the CSA’s standards and frameworks.

Moreover, the tools may not be able to report the audit results to the CSA STAR registry automatically or frequently. The SOC 2 Type 2 attestation is an independent audit report that evaluates the cloud provider’s security controls based on the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants (AICPA) Trust Services Criteria. However, this report is not specific to cloud computing and does not cover all aspects of the CCM. Furthermore, this report is not intended to be shared publicly or reported to the CSA STAR registry3.

Reference: STAR Continuous | CSA

STAR Certification | CSA

SOC 2 vs CSA STAR: Which One Should You Choose?

Question #52

To support a customer’s verification of the cloud service provider claims regarding its responsibilities according to the shared responsibility model, which of the following tools and techniques is appropriate?

  • A . External audit
  • B . Internal audit
  • C . Contractual agreement
  • D . Security assessment

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Correct Answer: A
A

Explanation:

An external audit is an appropriate tool and technique to support a customer’s verification of the cloud service provider’s claims regarding its responsibilities according to the shared responsibility model. An external audit is an independent and objective examination of the cloud service provider’s policies, procedures, controls, and performance by a qualified third-party auditor. An external audit can provide assurance that the cloud service provider is fulfilling its obligations and meeting the customer’s expectations in terms of security, compliance, availability, reliability, and quality. An external audit can also identify any gaps or weaknesses in the cloud service provider’s security posture and suggest recommendations for improvement.

An external audit can be based on various standards, frameworks, and regulations that are relevant to the cloud service provider’s industry and domain.

For example, some common external audits for cloud service providers are:

ISO/IEC 27001: This is an international standard that specifies the requirements for establishing, implementing, maintaining, and continually improving an information security management system (ISMS). An ISMS is a systematic approach to managing sensitive information so that it remains secure. An ISO/IEC 27001 certification demonstrates that the cloud service provider has implemented a comprehensive and effective ISMS that covers all aspects of information security, including risk assessment, policy development, asset management, access control, incident management, business continuity, and compliance.1

SOC 2: This is an attestation report that evaluates the cloud service provider’s security controls based on the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants (AICPA) Trust Services Criteria. The Trust Services Criteria are a set of principles and criteria for evaluating the design and operating effectiveness of controls that affect the security, availability, processing integrity, confidentiality, and privacy of a system. A SOC 2 report provides assurance that the cloud service provider has implemented adequate controls to protect the customer’s data and systems.2

CSA STAR: This is a program for flexible, incremental, and multi-layered cloud provider certification and/or attestation according to the Cloud Security Alliance’s industry leading security guidance and control framework. The CSA STAR program consists of three levels of assurance: Level 1: Self-Assessment, Level 2: Third-Party Audit, and Level 3: Continuous Auditing. The CSA STAR program aims to provide transparency, assurance, and trust in the cloud ecosystem by enabling customers to assess and compare the security and compliance posture of cloud service providers.3

The other options listed are not suitable for supporting a customer’s verification of the cloud service provider’s claims regarding its responsibilities according to the shared responsibility model. An internal audit is an audit conducted by the cloud service provider itself or by an internal auditor hired by the cloud service provider. An internal audit may not be as independent or objective as an external audit, and it may not provide sufficient evidence or credibility to the customer. A contractual agreement is a legal document that defines the roles, responsibilities, expectations, and obligations of both the cloud service provider and the customer. A contractual agreement may specify the terms and conditions for service delivery, performance, availability, security, compliance, data protection, incident response, dispute resolution, liability, and termination. However, a contractual agreement alone does not verify or validate whether the cloud service provider is actually fulfilling its claims or meeting its contractual obligations. A security assessment is a process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the security risks and vulnerabilities of a system or an organization. A security assessment may involve various methods such as vulnerability scanning, penetration testing, threat modeling, or risk analysis. A security assessment may provide useful information about the current state of security of a system or an organization, but it may not cover all aspects of the shared responsibility model or provide assurance that the cloud service provider is complying with its responsibilities on an ongoing basis.

Question #53

Which of the following is a category of trust in cloud computing?

  • A . Loyalty-based trust
  • B . Background-based trust
  • C . Reputation-based trust
  • D . Transparency-based trust

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Correct Answer: C
C

Explanation:

Reputation-based trust is a category of trust in cloud computing that relies on the feedback, ratings, reviews, or recommendations of other users or third parties who have used or evaluated the cloud service provider or the cloud service. Reputation-based trust reflects the collective opinion and experience of the cloud community regarding the quality, reliability, security, and performance of the cloud service provider or the cloud service. Reputation-based trust can help potential customers to make informed decisions about choosing a cloud service provider or a cloud service based on the reputation score or ranking of the provider or the service. Reputation-based trust can also motivate cloud service providers to improve their services and maintain their reputation by meeting or exceeding customer expectations.

Reputation-based trust is one of the most common and widely used forms of trust in cloud computing, as it is easy to access and understand.

However, reputation-based trust also has some limitations and challenges, such as:

The accuracy and validity of the reputation data may depend on the source, method, and frequency of data collection and aggregation. For example, some reputation data may be outdated, incomplete, biased, manipulated, or falsified by malicious actors or competitors.

The interpretation and comparison of the reputation data may vary depending on the context, criteria, and preferences of the customers. For example, some customers may value different aspects of the cloud service more than others, such as security, availability, cost, or functionality.

The trustworthiness and accountability of the reputation system itself may be questionable. For example, some reputation systems may lack transparency, consistency, or standardization in their design, implementation, or operation.

Therefore, reputation-based trust should not be the only factor for trusting a cloud service provider or a cloud service. Customers should also consider other forms of trust in cloud computing, such as evidence-based trust, policy-based trust, or certification-based trust

Question #54

When establishing cloud governance, an organization should FIRST test by migrating:

  • A . legacy applications to the cloud.
  • B . a few applications to the cloud.
  • C . all applications at once to the cloud.
  • D . complex applications to the cloud

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Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

When establishing cloud governance, an organization should first test by migrating a few applications to the cloud. Cloud governance is the process of defining and implementing policies, procedures, standards, and controls to ensure the effective, efficient, secure, and compliant use of cloud services. Cloud governance requires a clear understanding of the roles, responsibilities, expectations, and objectives of both the cloud service provider and the cloud customer, as well as the alignment of the cloud strategy with the business strategy. Cloud governance also involves monitoring, measuring, and reporting on the performance, availability, security, compliance, and cost of cloud services.

Migrating a few applications to the cloud can help an organization to test and validate its cloud governance approach before scaling up to more complex or critical applications. Migrating a few applications can also help an organization to:

Identify and prioritize the business requirements, risks, and benefits of moving to the cloud.

Assess the readiness, suitability, and compatibility of the applications for the cloud.

Choose the appropriate cloud service model (such as SaaS, PaaS, or IaaS) and deployment model (such as public, private, hybrid, or multi-cloud) for each application.

Define and implement the necessary security, compliance, privacy, and data protection measures for each application.

Establish and enforce the roles and responsibilities of the cloud governance team and other stakeholders involved in the migration process.

Develop and execute a migration plan that includes testing, validation, verification, and rollback procedures for each application.

Monitor and measure the performance, availability, security, compliance, and cost of each application in the cloud.

Collect feedback and lessons learned from the migration process and use them to improve the cloud governance approach.

Migrating a few applications to the cloud can also help an organization to avoid some common pitfalls and challenges of cloud migration, such as:

Migrating legacy or incompatible applications that require significant re-engineering or refactoring to work in the cloud.

Migrating all applications at once without proper planning, testing, or governance, which can result in operational disruptions, data loss, security breaches, or compliance violations.

Migrating complex or critical applications without adequate testing or governance, which can increase the risk of failure or downtime.

Migrating applications without considering the impact on the end-users or customers, who may experience changes in functionality, performance, usability, or accessibility.

Therefore, migrating a few applications to the cloud is a recommended best practice for establishing cloud governance. It can help an organization to gain experience and confidence in using cloud services while ensuring that its cloud governance approach is effective, efficient, secure, and compliant.

Reference: Migration environment planning checklist – Cloud Adoption Framework Cloud Governance: What You Need To Know – Forbes Cloud Governance: A Comprehensive Guide – BMC Blogs

Question #55

Which of the following methods can be used by a cloud service provider with a cloud customer that does not want to share security and control information?

  • A . Nondisclosure agreements (NDAs)
  • B . Independent auditor report
  • C . First-party audit
  • D . Industry certifications

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Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

An independent auditor report is a method that can be used by a cloud service provider (CSP) with a cloud customer that does not want to share security and control information. An independent auditor report is a document that provides assurance on the CSP’s security and control environment, based on an audit conducted by a qualified third-party auditor. The audit can be based on various standards or frameworks, such as ISO 27001, SOC 2, CSA STAR, etc. The independent auditor report can provide the cloud customer with the necessary information to evaluate the CSP’s security and control posture, without disclosing sensitive or proprietary details. The CSP can also use the independent auditor report to demonstrate compliance with relevant regulations or contractual obligations.

Reference: ISACA, Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge (CCAK) Study Guide, 2021, p. 83-84. ISACA, Cloud Computing Audit Program, 2019, p. 6-7.

Question #56

Application programming interfaces (APIs) are likely to be attacked continuously by bad actors because they:

  • A . are the asset with private IP addresses.
  • B . are generally the most exposed part.
  • C . could be poorly designed.
  • D . act as a very effective backdoor.

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Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

APIs are likely to be attacked continuously by bad actors because they are generally the most exposed part of an application or system. APIs serve as the interface between different components or services, and often expose sensitive data or functionality to the outside world. APIs can be accessed by anyone with an Internet connection, and can be easily discovered by scanning or crawling techniques. Therefore, APIs are a prime target for attackers who want to exploit vulnerabilities, steal data, or disrupt services.

Reference: ISACA, Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge (CCAK) Study Guide, 2021, p. 88-89.

OWASP, The Ten Most Critical API Security Risks – OWASP Foundation, 2019, p. 4-5

Question #57

In a multi-level supply chain structure where cloud service provider A relies on other sub cloud services, the provider should ensure that any compliance requirements relevant to the provider are:

  • A . treated as confidential information and withheld from all sub cloud service providers.
  • B . treated as sensitive information and withheld from certain sub cloud service providers.
  • C . passed to the sub cloud service providers.
  • D . passed to the sub cloud service providers based on the sub cloud service providers’ geographic location.

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Correct Answer: C
C

Explanation:

In a multi-level supply chain structure where cloud service provider A relies on other sub cloud service providers, the provider should ensure that any compliance requirements relevant to the provider are passed to the sub cloud service providers. This is because the sub cloud service providers may have access to or process the provider’s data or resources, and therefore need to comply with the same standards and regulations as the provider. Passing the compliance

requirements to the sub cloud service providers can also help the provider to monitor and audit the

sub cloud service providers’ performance and security, and to mitigate any risks or issues that may

arise.

Reference: ISACA, Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge (CCAK) Study Guide, 2021, p. 85-86.

CSA, Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) v4.0, 2021, p. 7-8

Question #58

Which of the following cloud service provider activities MUST obtain a client’s approval?

  • A . Destroying test data
  • B . Deleting subscription owner accounts
  • C . Deleting test accounts
  • D . Deleting guest accounts

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Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

Deleting subscription owner accounts is an activity that MUST obtain a client’s approval in the context of cloud service provider activities. Subscription owner accounts are critical as they hold the ownership and control over the resources and services within a cloud subscription. Deleting these accounts can have significant implications, including loss of access, control, and potential data loss.

Therefore, it is essential for a cloud service provider to seek explicit approval from the client before proceeding with such an action to ensure transparency, maintain trust, and avoid any unintended consequences.

Reference: Microsoft Trust Center, Cloud Services Due Diligence Checklist1.

Google Cloud, What is a Cloud Service Provider?2.

Partner Center, CSP agreements, price lists, and offers3.

Microsoft Azure, How to choose a cloud service provider4.

FCA, FG16/5 Guidance for firms outsourcing to the ‘cloud’ and other third-party IT services

Question #59

A contract containing the phrase "You automatically consent to these terms by using or logging into the service to which they pertain" is establishing a contract of:

  • A . exclusivity.
  • B . adhesion.
  • C . execution.
  • D . exclusion.

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Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

A contract containing the phrase “You automatically consent to these terms by using or logging into the service to which they pertain” is establishing a contract of adhesion. A contract of adhesion is a type of legal agreement that involves one party setting the terms and conditions and the other party having no choice but to accept or reject them without bargaining. These contracts are often used in situations where one party has more power or resources than the other, such as in online services, insurance, leases, or consumer credit. These contracts may be unfair or unclear to the weaker party and may be challenged in court for unconscionability or ambiguity12.

Reference: adhesion contract | Wex | US Law | LII / Legal Information Institute What is a contract of adhesion? A complete guide – PandaDoc

Question #60

Regarding cloud service provider agreements and contracts, unless otherwise stated, the provider is:

  • A . responsible to the cloud customer and its clients.
  • B . responsible only to the cloud customer.
  • C . not responsible at all to any external parties.
  • D . responsible to the cloud customer and its end users

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Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

Regarding cloud service provider agreements and contracts, unless otherwise stated, the provider is responsible only to the cloud customer. This means that the provider has a contractual obligation to deliver the agreed-upon services and meet the service level agreements (SLAs) with the cloud customer, who is the direct payer of the services. The provider is not responsible for any other parties, such as the cloud customer’s clients, end users, or regulators, unless explicitly specified in the contract. The cloud customer is responsible for ensuring that the provider’s services meet their own compliance and security requirements, as well as those of their stakeholders12.

Reference: Shared responsibility in the cloud – Microsoft Azure

Cloud security shared responsibility model – NCSC

Question #61

A cloud service provider contracts for a penetration test to be conducted on its infrastructures. The auditor engages the target with no prior knowledge of its defenses, assets, or channels. The provider’s security operation center is not notified in advance of the scope of the audit and the test vectors.

Which mode has been selected by the provider?

  • A . Reversal
  • B . Double blind
  • C . Double gray box
  • D . Tandem

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Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

A double blind penetration test is a type of pen test where the hacker has no prior knowledge of the target’s defenses, assets, or channels, and the target’s security team is not notified in advance of the scope of the audit and the test vectors. This mode simulates a real-world attack scenario, where both the attacker and the defender have to rely on their skills and resources to achieve their objectives. A double blind penetration test can help evaluate the effectiveness of the target’s security posture, detection and response capabilities, and incident management procedures12.

Reference: What is Penetration Testing | Step-By-Step Process & Methods | Imperva 7 Types of Penetration Testing: Guide to Pentest Methods & Types

Question #62

In the context of Infrastructure as a Service (laaS), a vulnerability assessment will scan virtual machines to identify vulnerabilities in:

  • A . both operating system and application infrastructure contained within the cloud service provider’s instances.
  • B . both operating system and application infrastructure contained within the customer’s instances.
  • C . only application infrastructure contained within the cloud service provider’s instances.
  • D . only application infrastructure contained within the customer’s instance

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Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

In the context of Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), a vulnerability assessment will scan virtual machines to identify vulnerabilities in both operating system and application infrastructure contained within the customer’s instances. IaaS is a cloud service model that provides customers with access to virtualized computing resources, such as servers, storage, and networks, hosted by a cloud service provider (CSP). The customer is responsible for installing, configuring, and maintaining the operating system and application software on the virtual machines, while the CSP is responsible for managing the underlying physical infrastructure. Therefore, a vulnerability assessment will scan the customer’s instances to detect any weaknesses or misconfigurations in the operating system and application layers that may expose them to potential threats. A vulnerability assessment can help the customer to prioritize and remediate the identified vulnerabilities, and to comply with relevant security standards and regulations12.

Reference: Azure Security Control – Vulnerability Management | Microsoft Learn How to Implement Enterprise Vulnerability Assessment – Gartner

Question #63

The Cloud Octagon Model was developed to support organizations’:

  • A . risk treatment methodology.
  • B . incident detection methodology.
  • C . incident response methodology.
  • D . risk assessment methodology.

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Correct Answer: D
D

Explanation:

The Cloud Octagon Model was developed to support organizations’ risk assessment methodology. Risk assessment is the process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks associated with a cloud computing environment. The Cloud Octagon Model provides a logical approach to holistically deal with security aspects involved in moving to the cloud by introducing eight dimensions that need to be considered: procurement, IT governance, architecture, development and engineering, service providers, risk processes, data classification, and country. The model aims to reduce risks, improve effectiveness, manageability, and security of cloud solutions12.

Reference: Cloud Octagon Model | CSA

Cloud Security Alliance Releases Cloud Octagon Model

Question #64

When an organization is moving to the cloud, responsibilities are shared based upon the cloud service provider’s model and accountability is:

  • A . shared.
  • B . avoided.
  • C . transferred.
  • D . maintained.

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Correct Answer: D
D

Explanation:

When an organization is moving to the cloud, responsibilities are shared based upon the cloud service provider’s model and accountability is maintained. This means that the organization remains accountable for the security and compliance of its data and applications in the cloud, even if some of the security responsibilities are delegated to the cloud service provider (CSP). The organization cannot transfer or avoid its accountability to the CSP or any other third party, as it is ultimately responsible for its own business outcomes, legal obligations, and reputation. Therefore, the organization must understand the shared responsibility model and which security tasks are handled by the CSP and which tasks are handled by itself. The organization must also monitor and audit the CSP’s performance and security, and mitigate any risks or issues that may arise12.

Reference: Shared responsibility in the cloud – Microsoft Azure

Understanding the Shared Responsibilities Model in Cloud Services – ISACA

Question #65

Which of the following is the MOST relevant question in the cloud compliance program design phase?

  • A . Who owns the cloud services strategy?
  • B . Who owns the cloud strategy?
  • C . Who owns the cloud governance strategy?
  • D . Who owns the cloud portfolio strategy?

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Correct Answer: C
C

Explanation:

The most relevant question in the cloud compliance program design phase is who owns the cloud governance strategy. Cloud governance is a method of information and technology (I&T) governance focused on accountability, defining decision rights and balancing benefit, risk and resources in an environment that embraces cloud computing. Cloud governance creates business-driven policies and principles that establish the appropriate degree of investments and control around the life cycle process for cloud computing services1. Therefore, it is essential to identify who owns the cloud governance strategy in the organization, as this will determine the roles and responsibilities, decision-making authority, reporting structure, and escalation process for cloud compliance issues. The cloud governance owner should be a senior executive who has the vision, influence, and resources to drive the cloud compliance program and align it with the business objectives2.

Reference: Building Cloud Governance From the Basics – ISACA

[Cloud Governance | Microsoft Azure]

Question #66

The MOST important factor to consider when implementing cloud-related controls is the:

  • A . shared responsibility model.
  • B . effectiveness of the controls.
  • C . risk reporting.
  • D . risk ownership

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Correct Answer: A
A

Explanation:

The most important factor to consider when implementing cloud-related controls is the shared responsibility model. The shared responsibility model is a framework that defines the roles and responsibilities of cloud service providers (CSPs) and cloud customers (CCs) in ensuring the security and compliance of cloud computing environments. The shared responsibility model helps to clarify which security tasks are handled by the CSP and which tasks are handled by the CC, depending on the type of cloud service model (IaaS, PaaS, SaaS) and the specific contractual agreements. The shared responsibility model also helps to avoid gaps or overlaps in security controls, and to allocate resources and accountability accordingly12.

Reference: Shared responsibility in the cloud – Microsoft Azure

Understanding the Shared Responsibilities Model in Cloud Services – ISACA

Question #67

Which of the following has the MOST substantial impact on how aggressive or conservative the cloud approach of an organization will be?

  • A . Applicable laws and regulations
  • B . Internal policies and technical standards
  • C . Risk scoring criteria
  • D . Risk appetite and budget constraints

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Correct Answer: D
D

Explanation:

Risk appetite and budget constraints have the most substantial impact on how aggressive or conservative the cloud approach of an organization will be. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Budget constraints are the limitations on the financial resources that an organization can allocate to its cloud initiatives. Both factors influence the organization’s strategic decisions on which cloud service models, deployment models, providers, and solutions to adopt, as well as the level of security, compliance, and performance to achieve. An organization with a high risk appetite and a large budget may opt for a more aggressive cloud approach, such as moving critical applications and data to a public cloud provider, while an organization with a low risk appetite and a small budget may opt for a more conservative cloud approach, such as keeping sensitive information on-premises or using a private cloud provider12.

Reference: ISACA, Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge (CCAK) Study Guide, 2021, p. 17-18.

CSA, Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) v4.0, 2021, p. 63.

Question #68

When developing a cloud compliance program, what is the PRIMARY reason for a cloud customer

  • A . To determine the total cost of the cloud services to be deployed
  • B . To confirm whether the compensating controls implemented are sufficient for the cloud services
  • C . To determine how those services will fit within its policies and procedures
  • D . To confirm which vendor will be selected based on compliance with security requirements

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Correct Answer: C
C

Explanation:

When developing a cloud compliance program, the primary reason for a cloud customer to determine how those services will fit within its policies and procedures is to ensure that the cloud services are aligned with the customer’s business objectives, risk appetite, and compliance obligations. Cloud services may have different characteristics, features, and capabilities than traditional on-premises services, and may require different or additional controls to meet the customer’s security and compliance requirements. Therefore, the customer needs to assess how the cloud services will fit within its existing policies and procedures, such as data classification, data protection, access management, incident response, audit, and reporting. The customer also needs to identify any gaps or conflicts between the cloud services and its policies and procedures, and implement appropriate measures to address them. By doing so, the customer can ensure that the cloud services are used in a secure, compliant, and effective manner12.

Reference: ISACA, Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge (CCAK) Study Guide, 2021, p. 19-20.

Cloud Compliance Frameworks: What You Need to Know

Question #69

A new company has all its operations in the cloud.

Which of the following would be the BEST information security control framework to implement?

  • A . NIST 800-73, because it is a control framework implemented by the main cloud providers
  • B . ISO/IEC 27018
  • C . ISO/IEC 27002
  • D . (S) Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM)

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Correct Answer: D
D

Explanation:

The Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) would be the best information security control framework to implement for a new company that has all its operations in the cloud.

The CCM is a cybersecurity control framework for cloud computing that is aligned to the CSA best practices and is considered the de-facto standard for cloud security and privacy. The CCM covers 17 domains and 197 control objectives that address all key aspects of cloud technology, such as data security, identity and access management, encryption and key management, incident response, audit assurance, and compliance. The CCM also maps to other industry-accepted security standards, regulations, and frameworks, such as ISO 27001/27002/27017/27018, NIST SP 800-53, PCI DSS, COBIT, FedRAMP, etc., which can help the company to achieve multiple compliance goals with one framework. The CCM also provides guidance on the shared responsibility model between cloud service providers and cloud customers, and helps to define the organizational relevance of each control12.

Reference: Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) – CSA

Cloud Controls Matrix and CAIQ v4 | CSA – Cloud Security Alliance

Question #70

Which of the following processes should be performed FIRST to properly implement the NIST SP 800-53 r4 control framework in an organization?

  • A . A selection of the security objectives the organization wants to improve
  • B . A security categorization of the information systems
  • C . A comprehensive business impact analysis (BIA)
  • D . A comprehensive tailoring of the controls of the framework

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Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

A security categorization of the information systems should be performed first to properly implement the NIST SP 800-53 r4 control framework in an organization. Security categorization is the process of determining the potential impact on organizational operations, organizational assets, individuals, other organizations, and the Nation resulting from a loss of confidentiality, integrity, or availability of an information system and the information processed, stored, or transmitted by that system. Security categorization is based on the application of FIPS Publication 199, Standards for Security Categorization of Federal Information and Information Systems, which defines three levels of impact: low, moderate, and high. Security categorization is the first step in the Risk Management Framework (RMF) described in NIST SP 800-37, Revision 2, Risk Management Framework for Information Systems and Organizations: A System Life Cycle Approach for Security and Privacy. Security categorization helps to identify the security requirements for the information system and to select an initial set of baseline security controls from NIST SP 800-53 r4, Security and Privacy Controls

for Federal Information Systems and Organizations. The baseline security controls can then be tailored and supplemented as needed to address specific organizational needs, risk factors, and compliance obligations12.

Reference: SP 800-53 Rev. 4, Security & Privacy Controls for Federal Info Sys … SP 800-37 Rev. 2, Risk Management Framework for Information …

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