Topic 1, Scenario 1 "Medical Domain"
You are working as a test manager in the medical domain leading a team of system testers. You are currently working on a major release of the product which gives customers many new features and resolves a number of problem reports from previous releases.
You have been given responsibility for the non-functional testing of a safety-critical monitoring & diagnostics package in the medical area.
Which of the following would you least expect to see addressed in the test plan? 1 credit
- A . Availability
- B . Safety
- C . Portability
- D . Reliability
Since the system is in the medical domain and therefore in the safety critical area, testing needs to be rigorous and evidence is required that the system has been adequately tested. Identify THREE measures that would typically be part of the test approach in this domain and which are not always applicable in other domains! 1 credit
- A . High level of documentation
- B . Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) sessions
- C . Traceability to requirements
- D . Non-functional testing
- E . Master test planning
- F . Test design techniques
- G . Reviews
You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test specialist.
Which of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report? 1 credit
- A . Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.
- B . Recommendations for taking controlling actions
- C . Status compared against the started exit criteria
- D . Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to be achieved
Considerable attention will be given in this project to defining exit criteria and on reporting back on their status.
Which combination of TWO exit criteria from the list would be best to use? 1 credit
I. Total number of defects found
II. Percentage of test cases executed
III. Total test effort planned versus total actual test effort spent IV.
Defect trend (number of defects found per test run over time
- A . (i) and (ii)
- B . (i) and (iv)
- C . (ii) and (iii)
- D . (ii) and (iv)
Explain how the above mentioned report may differ from a report that you produce for the project manager, who is a test specialist Select TWO items from the following options that can be used to report to the project manager and would not be included in a report to senior management. 1 credit
- A . Show details on effort spent
- B . List of all outstanding defects with their priority and severity
- C . Give product risk status
- D . Show trend analysis
- E . State recommendations for release
A test log is one of the documents that need to be produced in this domain in order to provide evidence of testing. However, the level of detail of test logs can vary.
Which of the following is NOT an influencing factor for the level of detail of the test logs being produced? 1 credit
- A . Level of test execution automation
- B . Test level
- C . Regulatory requirements
- D . Experience level of testers
Consider the typical objectives of testing.
Which of the following metrics can be used to measure the effectiveness of the testing process in achieving one of those objectives? 1 credit
- A . Average number of days between defect discovery and resolution
- B . Percentage of requirements covered
- C . Lines of code written per developer per day
- D . Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing
Topic 2, Scenario 2 "Reviews"
A software development organization wants to introduce some specific improvements to its test process. Currently, most of their testing resources are focussedon system testing.
They are developing embedded software, and do not have a simulation environment to enable them to execute software modules on the development host. They have been advised that introducing inspections and reviews could be the most appropriate step forward.
Which of the following is an example of testing as part of the requirements specification phase? 1 credit
- A . A requirements review meeting
- B . A business analyst eliciting requirements
- C . Performing acceptance tests against requirements
- D . A test report showing requirements coverage
Identify the THREE types of formal peer reviews that can be recognized. 1 credit
- A . Inspection
- B . Management review
- C . Walkthrough
- D . Audit
- E . Technical review
- F . Informal review
- G . Assessment
The introduction of reviews and inspections has often failed as a process improvement action.
Identify the THREE most important measures that should be taken to reduce the risk that this test process improvement will fail. 2 Credits (for 2 out of 3 correct 1 credit)
- A . Process ownership and experienced moderators who drive the inspection process.
- B . Management support
- C . Training of those involved
- D . The availability of stands and processes
- E . Usage of a more traditional software development lifecycle
- F . Alignment with software process improvement
- G . Using a reference model, e.g. TMMi
What is the main reason why reviews are especially beneficial in the above-mentioned scenario? 2 credits
- A . They ensure a common understanding of the product.
- B . They find defects early.
- C . They enhance project communication.
- D . They can be performed without exercising the code.
As part of the improvement program, the organization is also looking at tool support.
Which type of tool could be used to ensure higher quality of the code to be reviewed? 1 credit
- A . Review tool
- B . Test execution tool
- C . Static analysis tool
- D . Test design tool
IEEE 1028 also defines “management review” as a type of review.
What is the main purpose of a management review? 1 credit
- A . Align technical concepts during the design phase
- B . Establish a common understanding of requirements
- C . Provide independent evaluation of compliance to processes, regulations, standards etc.
- D . To monitor progress, assess the status of a project, and make decisions about future actions
Topic 3, Scenario 3 "Tool Selection and Implementation"
Your company is considering whether or not to purchase a test tool suite from a respectable vendor. Your manager has searched the internet for comparable products but none of them meets his specific requirements. A tool demonstration has been arranged for next week and your team has been invited to attend. The tool suite consists of a test management tool, test execution tool and a requirements management tool. There is the possibility of adding a performance testing tool at a later stage. You have decided to attend the demo but raise some issues beforehand regarding expectations.
Select THREE issues from the options provided that should at least be raised. 1 credit
- A . Has there been sufficient comparison of tools?
- B . What are the problems we are trying to address?
- C . Do we have a set of tool requirements to validate the tool against?
- D . How will the implementation be organized?
- E . Which project will be selected to perform the tool pilot?
- F . Is customized training available?
- G . How will the change process be managed?
Which of the following would you least expect to form part of the analysis of initial tool costs? 1 credit
- A . Integration with other tools
- B . Learning time required to use the new tool
- C . Tool portability
- D . Evaluation of suitable tools
Topic 4, Scenario 4, V2 "Test Management Tool"
The project situation after 11 months is:
– The first increment was released one week late but contained sufficient functionality to be declared fit for purpose’. However, there were 20 outstanding incidents deferred to increment two.
– The amount of voluntary overtime worked PV the test team has reduced the second Increment slippage to just 3 weeks.
– There is talk of reducing the scope of requirements. The purpose of this is to first deliver the application with support for manual testing and then to provide a delivery * weeks later to resolve any remaining points and provide support for automated testing (i.e. the link to the capture-replay tool).
– Concerns have been expressed by a section of the user community, that in some places the usability is very poor.
Which of the following would be the most significant input to estimating the time to carry out the specified testing tasks? 3 credits
- A . The skills and experience of developers to correct the failures.
- B . The standards used for the requirements specification.
- C . The metrics recorded from testing the capture-replay tool.
- D . The number of testers in the company and their grade.
Which of the following would you expect to see in the master test plan? 1 credit
- A . A description of how the test cases are cross-referenced to requirements in the test management tool.
- B . A detailed identification of the resources that will carry out structural testing in the first iteration.
- C . The test approach that will be applied at system integration testing.
- D . A list of the names of the testers who will carry out the performance testing for the final iteration.
Which of the following are valid reasons for adopting a different life cycle (from the V model), for increments after the first year? 2 credits
i) We do not have a clear understanding of the requirements from a customer perspective.
ii. We see the risk of delivering requested functionality late as being higher than the risk of delivering a lower quality product.
iii. We do not have a budget for additional regression testing which is needed to ensure that existing functionality is not compromised by future iterations.
iv. The company test strategy does not fit well within the V life cycle model.
- A . (i) and (ii)
- B . (i) and (iv)
- C . (ii) and (iii)
- D . (ii) and (iv)
Which of the following would be the TWO most appropriate examples of entry criteria documented in the system integration test plan? 2 credits
- A . The percentage of decision coverage achieved during unit testing.
- B . The availability of the latest version of the capture-replay tool (for testing the interface with the newly developed test management tool).
- C . The sign-off of a performance test software release note (test item transmittal report) by both development and testing showing that system performance meets the specified acceptance criteria.
- D . The percentage of acceptance test procedures scheduled for execution.
- E . The percentage of requirements coverage achieved during system integration test.
Risks should be constantly reviewed. Given the current situation, which one of the following factors is most likely to lead to a revised view of product risk? 3 credits
- A . The concerns over the user interface may lead to changes to the interface which cannot be implemented by development in time for the second test iteration.
- B . The concerns over the user interface raises the likelihood of a risk in that area and increases the amount of test effort needed for the user interface, thereby limiting the test effort available for other parts of the test management tool.
- C . The delivery of the application without the interface changes may upset the user community.
- D . The method used for test estimation is not accurate enough and hence the money spent on testing exceeded its budget.
Which of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any life cycle model? 1 credit
- A . Analysis and design of tests begins as soon as development is completed.
- B . Some, but not all, development activities have corresponding test activities.
- C . Each test level has test objectives specific to that level.
- D . All document reviews involve the development team.
Which test management control option is most appropriate to adopt under these circumstances? 2 credits
- A . Introduce mandatory evening and weekend working to retrieve the 3 week slippage.
- B . Reconsider the exit criteria and review the test plan in the context of the current situation.
- C . Advise the user community regarding the reduced scope of requirements and the additional incremental delivery.
- D . Arrange a meeting with the user community representatives to discuss the user interface.
Which of the following is a project risk mitigation step you might take as test manager? 1 credit
- A . Testing for performance problems
- B . Hiring a contractor after a test analyst leaves the company
- C . Arranging a back-up test environment in case the existing one fails during testing
- D . Performing a project retrospective meeting using the test results after each increment
Which of the following is least likely to be used as a technique to identify project and product risks? 1 credit
- A . Brainstorming
- B . Inspections
- C . Expert interviews
- D . Independent assessments
Topic 5, Scenario 5, V2 "Human Resource System"
For the first increment of the new enterprise HR product you have performed a product risk analysis using the FMEA method. Five risk items have been identified and the likelihood and impact have been scored using scoring tables.
This has resulted in the following scores:
Part of the testing strategy indicates that you are going to be using systematic test design techniques. Your manager has asked that you present the main advantages of using these techniques at the next board meeting.
Identify THREE main benefits of using systematic test design techniques within this company. 2 credits (for 2 out of 3 correct 1 credit)
- A . Easier to quickly adapt testing to changing requirements compared to experienced-based testing
- B . Targets certain types of faults
- C . Will guide experienced testers to find defects
- D . Provides a way to differentiate depth of testing based on product risks by using different techniques
- E . More enhanced documentation and therefore higher repeatability and reproducibility
- F . Will make non-systematic testing redundant
- G . Will reduce the need for early reviews
What would be a test approach regarding the test design techniques to be applied that would fit an item with the highest risk? 2 credits
- A . Component testing: decision testing; System testing: exploratory testing
- B . Component testing: decision testing; System testing: decision table testing
- C . Component testing: statement testing; System testing: equivalence partitioning
- D . Component testing: statement testing; System testing: decision table partitioning
You have been asked to write a testing strategy for the company.
Which statement best explains how risk can be addressed within the testing strategy? 1 credit
- A . A test strategy should address identified generic product risks and present a process for mitigating those risks in line with the testing policy.
- B . A test strategy identifies the specific product for a project risk and defines the approach for the test project.
- C . A test strategy is derived from the test policy and describes the way risk assessments are performed in projects.
- D . A test strategy is the result of a project risk analysis and defines the approach and resources for testing.
What is the Risk Priority Number for risk item number 2? 2 credits
- A . 16
- B . 2
- C . 1
- D . 63
In addition to risk, identify TWO other components of a testing strategy. 1 credit
- A . The entry and exit criteria for each test phase
- B . Test training needs for the project resources
- C . The test design techniques to be used
- D . Test performance indicators
- E . The test schedule
Topic 6, Scenario 6, V4 "Independent Test Team"
You have for a while been trying to hire a second test automation specialist for your test team However, you did not have any luck in finding a suitable candidate. So now, you have been asked by IT management of XYZ to forward a proposal with alternative solutions for building an automated regression test suite at system test level over a period of 2 years including needed training and eventual handover to the test team.
In addition to introducing the new team member, you have decided to raise motivation.
Which of the measures listed below would be the best measure to take in order to increase the motivation of the team? 2 credits
- A . Provide more time for testing in the schedule
- B . Allow people to take some time off
- C . Introduce entry criteria to the testing phase
- D . Organize a meeting with senior management in which they address the importance of good testing for this project
A number of options have been suggested for the level of independence to be employed for the testing on the next project, and are shown below.
i) External test specialists perform non-functional testing.
ii. Testing is outsourced.
iii. Testing is carried out by the developer.
iv. A separate test team carries out the testing.
v) Testing is performed by the business.
vi. Testing is performed by a different developer.
Which of the following orders the above in a correct order of independence? 1 credit
- A . i, ii, iv, vi
- B . ii, i, v, vi
- C . ii, v, i, iii
- D . i, iv, v, vi
Based on the information given in the scenario, identify how the team could be improved most effectively? 2 credits
- A . By providing training in the payroll domain
- B . By providing a workshop on test design techniques
- C . By providing specific training on the systems being tested
- D . By providing training on reviewing requirements
Evaluate the status of the project against the defined exit criteria.
Which of the following options shows the correct status? 2 credits
- A . Criteria A = OK, criteria B = OK, criteria C = OK
- B . Criteria A = NOT OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = OK
- C . Criteria A = OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = NOT OK
- D . Criteria A = NOT OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = NOT OK
Instead of having an independent test team within the company, the company is considering to outsource testing.
What are THREE key challenges that are typical for outsourcing? 1 credit
- A . Test environment more complex
- B . Define expectation for tasks and deliverables
- C . Clear channels of communications
- D . Possibly different cultures
- E . Testing of non-functional requirements
- F . Audit trail from requirements to test cases
- G . Applying test automation
You have investigated different possibilities and selected four of them to present to IT management.
Which of the proposals will you most likely give your highest recommendations? 3 credits
- A . Insourcing of test automation based on an offer from a local company ABC that has people who are specialists in system level capture-replay automation tools and they also do regular training courses in test automation methods and tools. They can then work closely with Vicki.
- B . Outsourcing of test automation based on an offer from an Asian company, AsiaAutoTest, which has people who are specialists in system level capture-replay automation tools. They also offer training and besides they offer to run and maintain the regression tests in the future.
- C . Internal offer from the development department of XYZ to create the regression package using CppUnit as test automation tool. One of the development groups have very good experiences in automating unit tests, and they are willing to do training as well.
- D . Solution from a tool vendor offering to educate two test team members in the use of their easy-to-use test automation capture replay tool over the first 3 month and based on that build the regression test suite. In addition to Vicki, Steve is the only one that has time available to be educated.
Which of the following is a valid drawback of independent testing? 1 credit
- A . Developer and independent testing will overlap and waste resources.
- B . Developers loose the sense of responsibility and independent testers may become a bottleneck.
- C . Independent testers need extra education and always cost more.
- D . Independent testers will become a bottleneck and introduce problems in incident management.
Which of the following is a benefit of independent testing? 1 credit
- A . Code cannot be released into production until independent testing is complete.
- B . Testing is isolated from development.
- C . Independent testers find different defects and are unbiased.
- D . Developers do not have to take as much responsibility for quality.
Which of the following team roles would be most appropriate to enhance the team and why? 2 credits
- A . A person with the ability to complete tasks
- B . A quality assurance officer
- C . A person with in-depth technical skills
- D . A person who brings new ideas to the team
You are considering involving users during test execution. In general, what is the main reason for involving users during test execution? 1 credit
- A . They are a cheap resource
- B . They have good testing skills
- C . This can serve as a way to build their confidence in the system
- D . They have the ability to also focus on invalid test cases
Topic 7, Scenario 7 "Test Estimation"
You have been contracted to manage the acceptance testing of a new computer-based reservation system for a travel agency. You have provided an approximate budget estimate for the testing project based on previous experience with similar sized projects. However, the management of the parent company of the travel agency will not commit to the budget until detailed cost estimates are provided.
The reservation system is being developed by a third party However, detailed specifications of the software are available, as well as an estimate of the total effort that will be spent in developing the software. The software is to be delivered in four increments, and the functionality to be delivered in each increment has already been agreed on.
In general which part of the testing activity is most difficult to estimate? 1 credit
- A . Test planning
- B . Test execution
- C . Test management
- D . Test design
Identify THREE items that would be part of the work-breakdown structure showing the key testing activities for the acceptance test project. 2 credits (for 2 out of 3 correct 1 credit)
- A . Test planning, test case preparation and test execution for each of the four iterations
- B . Work should be explicitly allocated to test completion, test management, installation and to training on using the system
- C . Activities to deploy the system in the user environment
- D . Regression testing in the second, third and fourth iterations
- E . Development activities for unit and integration testing
- F . Reviews on requirements documentation
- G . Defining test environment requirements for system testing
In general, why is it NOT a good idea to estimate the testing effort based only on a percentage of development effort? Identify THREE valid reasons. 1 credit
- A . The quality of the development estimate may be poor.
- B . In general bottom-up estimation is always better than top-down estimation.
- C . The percentage based technique only applies to the V life cycle model.
- D . Using the same percentage every time does not address the level of risk of the application to be tested.
- E . The maturity of the organization, e.g. the quality of the test basis, quality of development testing, configuration management, availability of test tools, also influence the effort needed for testing.
- F . It builds on large set of historical data
- G . The result is almost always a too low estimate for the required test effort
Which aspect in the test estimate is the main risk in this project? 1 credit
- A . Quality of the specification
- B . Availability of end-users
- C . The costs of hardware and tools
- D . Unknown input quality due to third party development
Topic 8, Scenario 8, V2 "Test Proems Improvement’
You have raised the issue that improving the testing process is also dependent on the status of the software development process.
Model characteristics:
Which THREE of the below mentioned characteristics relate to TMMi? 1 credit
- A . 5 maturity levels
- B . Focussed on higher level testing
- C . 20 key areas
- D . Highly related to CMMI
- E . Continuous model
- F . Staged model
- G . Focussed on component and integration testing
- H . Is build around 12 critical testing processes
Comparing TMMi and TPI, which is not a valid reason for choosing either TPI or TMMi? 2 credits
- A . If the scope of test performance improvement covers all test levels, TMMi is preferred since TPI focusses mainly on black-box testing.
- B . If the organization is already applying CMMI, TMMi may be preferred since it has the same structure and uses the same terminology. TMMi addresses management commitment very strongly and is therefore more suitable to support a top-down improvement process.
- C . TPI is much more a bottom-up model that is suitable for addressing test topics for a specific (test) project.
- D . TMMi can only be used with the traditional V model,whereas TPI can be used with all types of software life cycles.
The test improvement project will take place in an organization developing a safety-critical avionics application.
Which one of the following standards do you believe would be most appropriate to take into account for compliance during your assignment? 1 credit
- A . ISO 9126
- B . IEEE 829
- C . BS 7925/2
- D . DO-178B
Which of the following phases in the fundamental test process is considered to deliver a document which can be used as a major input for test process improvement? 1 credit
- A . Test planning and control
- B . Test implementation & execution
- C . Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
- D . Test project closure
A test assessment has been carried out using the selected model as a reference framework. A number of recommendations have been identified and you are asked to prioritize them. Based on your knowledge of the project, you are expecting severe resistance to change.
Which of the following would be the most important selection criterion for defining the priority of the recommendations? 2 credits
- A . Synchronized with the overall long-term organizational strategy
- B . Defined according to the maturity model used
- C . Most visible to stakeholders
- D . Low costs actions first
During test process improvement it is recommended to use standards where possible. Standards originate from various sources and they cover different subjects in relation to testing Pick TWO sources of software standards, useful to software testing from the ones mentioned below. 1 credit
- A . ISO 9126-1 ‘Software engineering- Product quality Part 1:
Quality model’ is an international standard, that provides a basis on which to define quality assurance solutions. - B . ISA 4126-1 ‘Software engineering- Product quality Part 1:
Quality model’ is an international standard, that provides a basis on which to define quality assurance solutions. - C . BS-7925-2 ‘Software testing. Software component testing is a national standard used internationally. It covers a number of testing techniques that may be useful both on component testing level and on system testing level.
- D . SY-395-01 ‘Standard for East Coast Hospital software’ is a regional standard adapted from a national one. Besides hospital software, this standard ought to be used also by other types of software system in the region.
- E . IEEE 829 ‘standard for software test documentation’ is an international standard to be following mandatory by all testing origination regardless of lifecycle models.
Topic 9, Scenario 9 "Test Management Documentation"
A software house is concerned about the number of defects found in software released to its customers. They are starting to plan a new software product. In the past, releases have often been stopped due to poor planning and too many defects found during high level testing. You have been recruited to the newly created position of test manager and asked to develop a test strategy, manage the testing of the project and organize the resources needed to carry out the testing.
Within the projects, a master test plan and phase test plan will be used. Following is a list of characteristics applicable for test plans:
a) Any deviation from the procedures described in the test
b) strategy document
c) The overall estimated costs, timescales and resource
d) requirements
e) A detailed schedule of testing activities
f) The development deliverables to be tested
g) Which test staff members (names) will be involved and when
h) Level of requirements coverage achieved
Which TWO of the above mentioned characteristics relate to the phase test plan? 1 credit
- A . a
- B . b
- C . c
- D . d
- E . e
- F . f
Which THREE activities would be valid steps during the development of the test strategy?2 credits (2 out of 3 correct 1 credit)
- A . Identify test staff members that will be involved in the system test
- B . Define test career paths
- C . Understand the software development life cycle used by the software house
- D . Assess the testing that needs to be done to minimize the risks
- E . Issue the test strategy document for review
- F . Define a master test plan template
- G . Perform a project risk analysis
Within the projects, a master test plan and phase test plan will be used.
Following is a list of characteristics applicable for test plans:
a) Any deviation from the procedures described in the test strategy document
b) The overall estimated costs, timescales and resource requirements
c) A detailed schedule of testing activities
d) The development deliverables to be tested
e) Which test staff members (names) will be involved and when
f) Level of requirements coverage achieved
Which THREE of the above mentioned characteristics relate to the master test plan? 1 credit
- A . a
- B . b
- C . c
- D . d
- E . e
- F . f
As part of the test strategy, entry and exit criteria will be defined for each test level.
Which is NOT a valid reason for using entry and exit criteria? 1 credit
- A . The expectation is that development testing is not adequate.
- B . Exit criteria are used to decide on when to stop testing.
- C . Entry and exit criteria are a principal way for getting adequate resources.
- D . Using entry and exit criteria will prevent software that is not or poorly tested from going to the next test level.
Topic 10, Scenario 10, V3 "Online Application"
The cancellation of a current major development project has released resources. The development manager has decided to respond to his own request to tender and has proposed an in-house development with the use of a Rapid Application Development (RAO) approach.
The development manager is managing the review of the responses received from bidders, and has asked the in-house test manager to provide a review checklist for the test management aspects of the responses.
Which of the following checkpoints would be appropriate? 2 credits
- A . The bidder’s test policy should enforce that incident management fully conforms to IEEE 1044.
- B . The bidder’s project strategy shows that the data content of all the test environments conforms to EU standards.
- C . The bidder’s test plan shows that the application will be delivered for acceptance in six months time.
- D . The bidder’s project test plan depicts a phased implementation with later delivery dates to be confirmed and states that test deliverables will be developed using IEEE 829 as a guide.
Which one of the following estimation approaches is appropriate at this stage of the project? 2 credits
- A . Create an estimate based on the function point analysis technique and test point analysis
- B . Create an estimate based on the complexity of the code
- C . Create an estimate based on the credentials of the successful bidder
- D . Create an estimate based on a percentage of the development effort
Why might a RAD approach be a better option for the test manager rather than a sequential development? 2 credits
- A . It will extend the development team’s abilities and enhance future delivery capabilities.
- B . It will allow the marketing, clerical and testing staff to validate and verify the early screen prototypes.
- C . Time-box constraints will guarantee code releases are delivered on schedule.
- D . More time can be spent on test execution as less formal documentation is required.
The business has asked for a weekly progress report.
Which of the following would be appropriate as a measure of test coverage? 2 credits
- A . Percentage of business requirements exercised
- B . Percentage of planned hours worked this week
- C . Percentage of countries that have test scenarios
- D . Percentage of test iterations completed
Which of the following product risks would be most effectively addressed just by static testing? 3 credits
- A . In the delivered application, one of the countries, as specified in the requirements, has not been correctly implemented.
- B . The application takes too long to process a request for additional cover.
- C . The test cases do not cover the key requirements.
- D . The successful bidder may not deliver all the required functionality on time.
As a result of the RAD based development approach, the test manager has decided to change the risk mitigation approach.
Which test technique might be most appropriate to use? 2 credits
- A . Decision Table Testing
- B . Boundary Value Analysis
- C . Error Guessing
- D . Exploratory Testing
Which of the following is NOT a typical key challenge for testing in a RAD based development approach? 1 credit
- A . Re-usable test scripts for (automated) regression testing
- B . Project management and control
- C . No complete requirements specification
- D . Time-boxing
Topic 11, Scenario 11 "Incident Management"
The following is the current incident handling process in used at the company.
Step 1: Incident is documented in the incident Tile with the following information:
– Software module or area where the fault occurred
– Who has reported the fault
– Hardware configuration used for the test that found the fault
– The sequential incident number (1 greater than the last one recorded)
Step 2: Developer assigned to fix the fault
Step 3: Developer fixes the fault
Step 4: Developer signs off the incident as closed, and it is then removed from the incident file
Regarding the process described above, what is the most important recommendation you would make using IEEE 1044 as a guide? 2 credits
- A . No priority or severity assigned
- B . Incident numbering is manual rather than automated
- C . No mentioning of reproduceability
- D . No classification on type of incident
Topic 12, Scenario 12 “Automatic Teller Machine (ATM)”
You are a test manager in charge of integration, system and acceptance testing for a bank. You are working on a project to upgrade an existing ATM to allow customers to obtain cash advances from supported credit cards. The system should allow cash advances from 20 to 500, inclusively, for all supported credit cards. The supported credit cards are American Express, VISA, Eurocard and Mastercard.
In the master test plan the following items are listed in the section named “items and/or features to be tested”:
I All supported credit cards
II Language localization
II Valid and invalid advances IV Usability
V Response time
Relying only on the information provided in the scenario, select the TWO items and/or features for which sufficient information is available to proceed with test design. 2 credits
- A . All supported credit cards
- B . Language localization
- C . Valid and invalid advances
- D . Usability
- E . Response time
Given the following figures for the testing on a project, and assuming the failure rate for initial tests remains constant and that all retests pass, what number of tests remain to be run? 3 credits
- A . 700
- B . 720
- C . 784
- D . 570
Continuing with the Scenario described in the previous question, which of the following topics would you need to address in detail in the master test plan? 3 credits
- A . An approach to regression testing
- B . A list of boundary values for “advance amount”
- C . A description of dependencies between test cases
- D . A logical collection of test cases
Given is the following defect removal chart reported at the end of system testing – showing total defects detected and closed defects (fixed and successfully retested). A number of open defects are classified as critical. All tests have been executed.
Based on the chart above, what is the most appropriate next test phase? 1 credit
- A . Acceptance testing to verify the business process
- B . Acceptance testing to verify operational requirements
- C . Requirements testing as part of testing regulatory compliance
- D . Another system test cycle to verify defect resolution
Topic 13, Mix Questions
What benefits do static analysis tools have over test execution tools?
- A . Static analysis tools find defects earlier in the life cycle.
- B . Static analysis tools can be used before code is written.
- C . Static analysis tools test that the delivered code meets business requirements.
- D . Static analysis tools are particularly effective for regression testing.
The difference between re-testing and regression testing is:
- A . Re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects
- B . Re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating those tests
- C . Re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
- D . Re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same environment
- E . Re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by independent testers
Boundary value testing:
- A . Is the same as equivalence partitioning tests
- B . Test boundary conditions on, below and above the edges of input and output equivalence classes
- C . Tests combinations of input circumstances
- D . Is used in white box testing strategy
Tests are prioritized so that:
- A . You shorten the time required for testing
- B . You do the best testing in the time available
- C . You do more effective testing
- D . You find more faults
Which of the following is not a type of incremental testing approach?
- A . Top down
- B . Big-bang
- C . Bottom up
- D . Functional incrementation.
Consider the following pseudo code:
1 Begin
2 Read Time
3 If Time < 12 Then
4 Print (Time, "am")
5 Endif
6 If Time > 12 Then
7 Print (Time 12, "pm")
8 Endif
9 If Time = 12 Then
10 Print (Time, "noon")
11 Endif
12 End
How many test cases are needed to achieve 100 per cent decision coverage?
- A . 1
- B . 2
- C . 3
- D . 4
C
Explanation:
The three decisions are in sequence and the conditions are all mutually exclusive (if any one is true the others must be false). Hence a test case that makes the first decision true will make the second and third decisions false and so on.
So test case 1 (say Time = 6) would exercise the path True, False, False, test case 2 (say Time = 15) would exercise the path False, True, False. Test case 3 would have to be Time = 12. This combination achieves 100 per cent decision coverage because each decision has been exercised through its true and its false outcomes.
Incorrect form of Logic coverage is:
- A . Statement Coverage
- B . Pole Coverage
- C . Condition Coverage
- D . Path Coverage
Which of the following is correct?
Debugging is:
- A . Testing/checking whether the software performs correctly.
- B . Checking that a previously reported defect has been corrected.
- C . Identifying the cause of a defect, repairing the code and checking the fix is correct.
- D . Checking that no unintended consequences have occurred as a result of a fix.
C
Explanation:
A Is a brief definition of testing.
B Is retesting.
D Is regression testing.
Which of the following is a benefit of test independence?
- A . It does not require familiarity with the code.
- B . It is cheaper than using developers to test their own code.
- C . It avoids author bias in defining effective tests.
- D . Testers are better at finding defects than developers.
Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phase:
- A . Test Analysis and Design
- B . Test Implementation and execution
- C . Test Closure Activities
- D . Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Designing the test environment set-up and identifying any required infrastructure and tools are a part of which phase:
- A . Test Implementation and execution
- B . Test Analysis and Design
- C . Evaluating the Exit Criteria and reporting
- D . Test Closure Activities
A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests is called..?
- A . A dynamic analysis tool
- B . A test execution tool
- C . A debugging tool
- D . A test management tool
- E . A configuration management tool
To test a function, the programmer has to write a _________, which calls the function to be
tested and passes it test data:
- A . Stub
- B . Driver
- C . Proxy
- D . None of the above
Which of the following, if observed in reviews and tests, would lead to problems (or conflict) within teams?
- A . Testers and reviewers are not curious enough to find defects.
- B . Testers and reviewers are not qualified enough to find failures and faults.
- C . Testers and reviewers communicate defects as criticism against persons and not against the software product.
- D . Testers and reviewers expect that defects in the software product have already been found and fixed by the developers.
What should be the MAIN objective during development testing?
- A . To cause as many failures as possible so that defects in the software are identified and can be fixed
- B . To confirm that the system works as expected and that requirements have been met
- C . To assess the quality of the software with no intention of fixing defects
- D . To give information to stakeholders of the risk of releasing the system at a given time