Question #1
Which management monitoring parameter involves examining the amount of infrastructure resources used?
- A . Configuration
- B . Capacity
- C . Performance
- D . Availability
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Capacity is a management monitoring parameter that involves examining the amount of infrastructure resources used. This includes monitoring storage capacity, network bandwidth, CPU utilization, memory usage, and other resources. Capacity management is important for ensuring that the infrastructure has sufficient resources to meet the demands of the business or customers. It involves predicting future resource needs, identifying capacity bottlenecks, and optimizing resource utilization to avoid performance degradation or service disruptions. Explanation:
Reference: Section 2.2.2 Infrastructure Resource Monitoring, page 76.
B
Explanation:
Capacity is a management monitoring parameter that involves examining the amount of infrastructure resources used. This includes monitoring storage capacity, network bandwidth, CPU utilization, memory usage, and other resources. Capacity management is important for ensuring that the infrastructure has sufficient resources to meet the demands of the business or customers. It involves predicting future resource needs, identifying capacity bottlenecks, and optimizing resource utilization to avoid performance degradation or service disruptions. Explanation:
Reference: Section 2.2.2 Infrastructure Resource Monitoring, page 76.
Question #2
What statement describes machine learning?
- A . Applies an algorithm to large amounts of data for pattern discovery
- B . Organizes data efficiently so that compute systems can learn
- C . Developing a program to compute every possible outcome
- D . Replicating a detailed process and then implementing it in software
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Machine learning is a subfield of artificial intelligence that gives computers the ability to learn without explicitly being programmed [1]. It does this by applying an algorithm to large amounts of data in order to discover patterns and insights that can be used to inform decisions and predictions. This allows machines to learn from experience and make decisions in a way that mimics the human brain.
A
Explanation:
Machine learning is a subfield of artificial intelligence that gives computers the ability to learn without explicitly being programmed [1]. It does this by applying an algorithm to large amounts of data in order to discover patterns and insights that can be used to inform decisions and predictions. This allows machines to learn from experience and make decisions in a way that mimics the human brain.
Question #3
Which technology allows automation of sensors and devices to share and process information?
- A . Internet of Things
- B . Cloud computing
- C . Artificial Intelligence
- D . Deep Learning
Correct Answer: A
Question #4
In continuous data protection, what does the amount of journal space determine?
- A . Length of time required to recover the data
- B . Amount of space the source and replica volumes require
- C . Amount of data that can be restored to a specific point
- D . How far back the data can be recovered
Correct Answer: C
Question #5
Which product enables employees to enroll their mobile devices in an enterprise environment and ensures secure access from the devices to the enterprise resources?
- A . Dell PowerEdge
- B . Dell InTrust
- C . VMware AirWatch
- D . VMware AppDefense
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Workspace-ONE-UEM/1907/WS1_Express/GUID-AWT- INTROAWEX.html
C
Explanation:
Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Workspace-ONE-UEM/1907/WS1_Express/GUID-AWT- INTROAWEX.html
Question #6
DRAG DROP
Match each OSD features with its description.
Correct Answer:
Explanation:
Graphical user interface, application
Description automatically generated
Question #7
DRAG DROP
Match the functionality of a security goal with its description.
Correct Answer:
Explanation:
Question #8
Why is it important for organizations to store protect and manage their data?
- A . To eliminate complexity in managing the data center environment
- B . To meet the requirements of legal and data governance regulations
- C . To develop and deploy modern applications for business improvement
- D . To reduce the amount of data to be replicated, migrated, and backed up
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Organizations must store, protect, and manage their data in order to comply with the various laws and regulations governing the use and storage of data, such as GDPR and CCPA. By properly managing their data, organizations can ensure that they are compliant with these regulations and avoid potential penalties. Additionally, by storing, protecting, and managing their data, organizations can ensure that their data is secure and protected from malicious actors.
it is important for organizations to store, protect and manage their data because data is a valuable asset that can drive business growth, innovation, and competitive advantage. Data can also be subject to various risks such as loss, corruption, theft, unauthorized access, and compliance violations.
One of the reasons why it is important for organizations to store, protect and manage their data is to meet the requirements of legal and data governance regulations1. This means that organizations should comply with the laws and policies that govern how data should be collected, stored, processed, shared, and disposed of. Data governance also ensures that data quality, security, privacy, and ethics are maintained throughout the data lifecycle.
B
Explanation:
Organizations must store, protect, and manage their data in order to comply with the various laws and regulations governing the use and storage of data, such as GDPR and CCPA. By properly managing their data, organizations can ensure that they are compliant with these regulations and avoid potential penalties. Additionally, by storing, protecting, and managing their data, organizations can ensure that their data is secure and protected from malicious actors.
it is important for organizations to store, protect and manage their data because data is a valuable asset that can drive business growth, innovation, and competitive advantage. Data can also be subject to various risks such as loss, corruption, theft, unauthorized access, and compliance violations.
One of the reasons why it is important for organizations to store, protect and manage their data is to meet the requirements of legal and data governance regulations1. This means that organizations should comply with the laws and policies that govern how data should be collected, stored, processed, shared, and disposed of. Data governance also ensures that data quality, security, privacy, and ethics are maintained throughout the data lifecycle.
Question #9
What is a function of a continuous data protection (CDP) appliance?
- A . Migrates deduplicated data from the source volume to the target volume during replication
- B . Manages both local and remote replications within and across data centers
- C . Stores all data that has changed from the time the replication session started
- D . Intercepts writes to the production volume and splits each write into two copies
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A continuous data protection (CDP) is a system that backs up data on a computer system every time a change is made. CDP maintains a continuous journal of data changes and makes it possible to restore a system to any previous point in time.
C
Explanation:
A continuous data protection (CDP) is a system that backs up data on a computer system every time a change is made. CDP maintains a continuous journal of data changes and makes it possible to restore a system to any previous point in time.
Question #10
What information is available in a capacity planning report for storage infrastructure?
- A . number of units of storage available, used and the cost
- B . current and historic information about the utilization of storage, file systems, and ports
- C . equipment purchase dates, licenses, lease status, and maintenance records
- D . current and historical performance information about IT components and operations
Correct Answer: B
Question #11
Which type of data protection is used to move primary data to lower cost storage and helps to enforce compliance requirement?
- A . Archive
- B . Deduplication
- C . Backup
- D . Replication
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Archive is a type of data protection that is used to move primary data to lower cost storage and helps to enforce compliance requirements. It is a process of moving inactive data that is no longer needed for immediate use to a secondary storage medium. Archive uses data compression and deduplication techniques to reduce storage costs, and can also be used to help meet compliance requirements.
A
Explanation:
Archive is a type of data protection that is used to move primary data to lower cost storage and helps to enforce compliance requirements. It is a process of moving inactive data that is no longer needed for immediate use to a secondary storage medium. Archive uses data compression and deduplication techniques to reduce storage costs, and can also be used to help meet compliance requirements.
Question #12
What is an accurate statement about the Do-It-Yourself approach for building modern Infrastructure?
- A . Utilizes preconfigured preinstalled and prepackaged vendor ready solutions
- B . Combines the datacenter components into a single standalone computing platform managed by software
- C . Utilizes products and services from the vendors that provide specific functions with more configuration options
- D . Combines datacenter components into a distributed infrastructure platform managed by software
Correct Answer: C
Question #13
What is a function of the metadata service in an object-based storage device (OSD)?
- A . Generates the file system namespace from the file contents.
- B . Manages both physical and logical disks on which the user data is stored.
- C . Manages the storage space for all remote clients.
- D . Maintains the object IDs and file system namespace mappings.
Correct Answer: D
Question #14
Which type of zoning does the “X” represent?
- A . Fabric zoning
- B . WWN zoning
- C . Mixed zoning
- D . Port zoning
Correct Answer: A
Question #15
In a NAS environment, which file system enables file sharing with Windows clients and uses the TCP/IP protocol?
- A . New Technology File System (NTFS)
- B . Hadoop Distributed File System (HDFS)
- C . Common Internet File System (CIFS)
- D . Network File System (NFS)
Correct Answer: C
Question #16
What functionality does the control layer provide in a software-defined networking architecture?
- A . Forwards data packets based on application layer requirements
- B . Defines network behavior through physical network device policies
- C . Establishes communication between the infrastructure and interface layers
- D . Extracts network information from the data plane and sends it to the application layer
Correct Answer: C
Question #17
Refer to the Exhibit:
Identify the following FC Frame fields:
- A . 1CRC 2:Data field 3:Frame header
- B . 1:Frame header 2:Data field 3CRC
- C . 1CRC 2:Frame header 3:Data field
- D . 1:Frame header 2CRC 3:Data field
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
https://www.mycloudwiki.com/san/fc-san-protocols/
an FC frame consists of five parts: start of frame (SOF), frame header, data field, cyclic redundancy check (CRC), and end of frame (EOF). The SOF and EOF act as delimiters. The frame header is 24 bytes long and contains addressing information for the frame.
B
Explanation:
https://www.mycloudwiki.com/san/fc-san-protocols/
an FC frame consists of five parts: start of frame (SOF), frame header, data field, cyclic redundancy check (CRC), and end of frame (EOF). The SOF and EOF act as delimiters. The frame header is 24 bytes long and contains addressing information for the frame.
Question #18
What is a feature a hypervisor?
- A . Provides a VMM that manages all VMS on a clustered compute system
- B . Isolates the VMS on a single compute system
- C . Provides a VMM that manages all VMS on a single compute system
- D . Isolates the physical resources of a single compute system
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A hypervisor is a layer of software that runs directly on top of a physical server and provides a virtualization layer. It allows multiple virtual machines (VMs) to run on the same physical hardware, sharing the underlying resources such as CPU, memory, and storage. The hypervisor isolates the VMs from each other and provides a virtual machine monitor (VMM) that manages the virtual machines’ access to physical resources. The VMM is responsible for managing the VMs’ creation, configuration, and removal, as well as their access to the physical resources of the host system. T
C
Explanation:
A hypervisor is a layer of software that runs directly on top of a physical server and provides a virtualization layer. It allows multiple virtual machines (VMs) to run on the same physical hardware, sharing the underlying resources such as CPU, memory, and storage. The hypervisor isolates the VMs from each other and provides a virtual machine monitor (VMM) that manages the virtual machines’ access to physical resources. The VMM is responsible for managing the VMs’ creation, configuration, and removal, as well as their access to the physical resources of the host system. T
Question #19
What is a benefit of using a purpose-build NAS solution vs general purpose file servers?
- A . provides more efficient file sharing across Windows and Linux users
- B . provides higher network security and efficient object sharing across Windows and Linux users
- C . provides more efficient object sharing across Windows and Linux users
- D . provides higher compute security and efficient file sharing across Windows and Linux users
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
A file server is a computer that provides a location for shared disk access, i.e. storage of
computer files (such as text, image, sound, video) that can be accessed by other computers on the same network2. A general purpose file server is a file server that serves shares such as team shares, user home folders, work folders and software development shares3.
According to 4, a purpose-built NAS solution is a storage system that simplifies data management with easy NAS file sharing. A NAS solution provides shared access to files over a network using protocols such as NFS and SMB/CIFS5.
Based on these definitions4, a benefit of using a purpose-built NAS solution vs general purpose file servers is
A
Explanation:
A file server is a computer that provides a location for shared disk access, i.e. storage of
computer files (such as text, image, sound, video) that can be accessed by other computers on the same network2. A general purpose file server is a file server that serves shares such as team shares, user home folders, work folders and software development shares3.
According to 4, a purpose-built NAS solution is a storage system that simplifies data management with easy NAS file sharing. A NAS solution provides shared access to files over a network using protocols such as NFS and SMB/CIFS5.
Based on these definitions4, a benefit of using a purpose-built NAS solution vs general purpose file servers is
Question #20
What is a key benefit for deploying a remote data protection and recovery solution in a data center environment?
- A . Maximizes application and information availability
- B . Reduces required maintenance time for IT resources
- C . Avoids security risks that exposes the business data
- D . Reduces the cost of protecting data
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
According to 1, a remote data protection and recovery solution is a solution that enables data backup and recovery across geographically dispersed locations. It can be implemented using various technologies such as remote replication, cloud backup, and backup appliances.
One of the key benefits for deploying a remote data protection and recovery solution in a data center environment is that it maximizes application and information availability1. This means that it ensures that critical applications and data are always accessible and recoverable in case of any disaster or disruption. A remote data protection and recovery solution can also provide other benefits such as reducing costs, improving security, and simplifying management.
A
Explanation:
According to 1, a remote data protection and recovery solution is a solution that enables data backup and recovery across geographically dispersed locations. It can be implemented using various technologies such as remote replication, cloud backup, and backup appliances.
One of the key benefits for deploying a remote data protection and recovery solution in a data center environment is that it maximizes application and information availability1. This means that it ensures that critical applications and data are always accessible and recoverable in case of any disaster or disruption. A remote data protection and recovery solution can also provide other benefits such as reducing costs, improving security, and simplifying management.
Question #21
Which set of factors govern the overall performance of a hard disk drive?
- A . Seek time
Rotational latency Data transfer rate - B . Seek time
Rotational latency Bandwidth - C . Seek time
Rotational latency RAID level - D . Seek time
Rotational latency
I/O operations per second
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Seek time, Rotational latency, and Data transfer rate are the three factors that govern the overall performance of a hard disk drive (HDD). Seek time is the time required by the read/write head to move to the correct location on the disk, rotational latency is the time required by the disk platter to rotate to bring the desired sector under the read/write head, and data transfer rate is the speed at which data can be transferred between the disk and the buffer (or cache) memory [1]. Bandwidth, RAID level, and I/O operations per second are not factors that govern HDD performance.
A
Explanation:
Seek time, Rotational latency, and Data transfer rate are the three factors that govern the overall performance of a hard disk drive (HDD). Seek time is the time required by the read/write head to move to the correct location on the disk, rotational latency is the time required by the disk platter to rotate to bring the desired sector under the read/write head, and data transfer rate is the speed at which data can be transferred between the disk and the buffer (or cache) memory [1]. Bandwidth, RAID level, and I/O operations per second are not factors that govern HDD performance.
Question #22
Which type of interface connects SSD drives to the storage array controller?
- A . NVMe
- B . NVMe/IB
- C . NVMe-oF
- D . NVMe/TCP
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
an interface is a logical connection that enables data transfer between devices. There are different types of interfaces that can connect SSD drives to the storage array controller, such as SATA, SAS, PCIe, and NVMe.
One of the types of interface that can connect SSD drives to the storage array controller is NVMe1. NVMe stands for Non-Volatile Memory Express and it is a protocol that enables high-performance communication between SSDs and PCIe bus. NVMe reduces latency and increases throughput by using multiple parallel queues and direct memory access.
A
Explanation:
an interface is a logical connection that enables data transfer between devices. There are different types of interfaces that can connect SSD drives to the storage array controller, such as SATA, SAS, PCIe, and NVMe.
One of the types of interface that can connect SSD drives to the storage array controller is NVMe1. NVMe stands for Non-Volatile Memory Express and it is a protocol that enables high-performance communication between SSDs and PCIe bus. NVMe reduces latency and increases throughput by using multiple parallel queues and direct memory access.
Question #23
Why is it important to automate the operations management process in a data center environment?
- A . converts CAPEX to OPEX
- B . mitigates operation management risks
- C . eliminates operational cost
- D . ensures operational agility
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Automating the operations management process in a data center environment can help mitigate operational management risks. Automation can reduce the likelihood of human error, which can lead to outages or other disruptions. By automating routine tasks, such as patch management, configuration updates, and resource allocation, IT staff can focus on higher-value activities that drive innovation and improve the user experience. Additionally, automation can improve operational efficiency, reduce costs, and ensure operational agility, but it does not eliminate operational costs. Explanation:
Reference: Section 2.6.2 Automation of IT Operations, page 127.
B
Explanation:
Automating the operations management process in a data center environment can help mitigate operational management risks. Automation can reduce the likelihood of human error, which can lead to outages or other disruptions. By automating routine tasks, such as patch management, configuration updates, and resource allocation, IT staff can focus on higher-value activities that drive innovation and improve the user experience. Additionally, automation can improve operational efficiency, reduce costs, and ensure operational agility, but it does not eliminate operational costs. Explanation:
Reference: Section 2.6.2 Automation of IT Operations, page 127.
Question #24
Which loT architecture component provides the connection to monitor and control user devices? (First Choose Correct option and give detailed explanation delltechnologies.com)
- A . Gateways
- B . Smart Devices
- C . Middleware
- D . Applications
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Gateways are an essential component of an IoT architecture, providing the connection between user devices and the network. Gateways act as a bridge between the device layer and the cloud layer, enabling the remote monitoring and control of user devices. Gateways also provide security features such as data encryption and authentication, which helps protect user data. Additionally, gateways provide additional features, such as data aggregation and protocol conversion, which can help increase the efficiency of the overall IoT architecture.
A
Explanation:
Gateways are an essential component of an IoT architecture, providing the connection between user devices and the network. Gateways act as a bridge between the device layer and the cloud layer, enabling the remote monitoring and control of user devices. Gateways also provide security features such as data encryption and authentication, which helps protect user data. Additionally, gateways provide additional features, such as data aggregation and protocol conversion, which can help increase the efficiency of the overall IoT architecture.
Question #25
Which VMware product has pre-defined workflows that helps to automate and coordinate the service delivery and operational functions in a storage infrastructure?
- A . NSX
- B . vSphere ESXi
- C . vRealize Orchestrator
- D . Horizon
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Reference: https://www.vmware.com/products/vrealize-orchestrator.html
C
Explanation:
Reference: https://www.vmware.com/products/vrealize-orchestrator.html
Question #26
What is a function of VM hardening?
- A . Isolate VM storage media to ensure data validity
- B . Isolate VM storage media to prevent data leaks
- C . Change the default configuration of the VM to enhance security
- D . Implement access control list across the VMs to enhance security
Correct Answer: C
Question #27
How should vulnerabilities be managed in a data center environment? (Verify the Correct answer from Associate – Information Storage and Management Study Manual from dellemc.com)
- A . Minimize the attack surfaces and maximize the work factors
- B . Minimize the attack surfaces and minimize the work factors
- C . Maximize the attack surfaces and minimize the attack vector
- D . Maximize the attack surfaces and maximize the attack vector
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
According to 1, vulnerabilities are weaknesses that can be exploited by attackers to compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of data or systems. Vulnerabilities can exist at various levels of a data center environment, such as applications, operating systems, networks, devices, and physical infrastructure.
One of the ways to manage vulnerabilities in a data center environment is to minimize the attack surfaces and maximize the work factors1. This means that you should reduce the number of entry points and exposure areas that an attacker can exploit (attack surfaces) and increase the amount of effort and resources that an attacker needs to overcome your defenses (work factors). This can be achieved by applying various security measures such as patching, hardening, encryption, authentication, authorization, monitoring, auditing, and testing.
A
Explanation:
According to 1, vulnerabilities are weaknesses that can be exploited by attackers to compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of data or systems. Vulnerabilities can exist at various levels of a data center environment, such as applications, operating systems, networks, devices, and physical infrastructure.
One of the ways to manage vulnerabilities in a data center environment is to minimize the attack surfaces and maximize the work factors1. This means that you should reduce the number of entry points and exposure areas that an attacker can exploit (attack surfaces) and increase the amount of effort and resources that an attacker needs to overcome your defenses (work factors). This can be achieved by applying various security measures such as patching, hardening, encryption, authentication, authorization, monitoring, auditing, and testing.
Question #28
An organization wants to deploy a VM storage migration solution into their data center environment.
What is the result of deploying this type of solution?
- A . Enables VMs to continue functioning when source data becomes unavailable
- B . Improves the application security of migrated VMs
- C . Enables efficient management of capacity across storage systems
- D . Reduces overall storage capacity requirements
Correct Answer: C
Question #29
What does using a service-focused approach provide to managing the storage infrastructure?
- A . Determines the optimal amount of storage space needed in a backup storage system
- B . Provides hardware-specific management tasks that are automated
- C . Determines the appropriate workflow upon receiving a service provisioning request
- D . Provides detailed information on configuration, connectivity, and component interrelationships
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Using a service-focused approach allows the storage infrastructure to be managed based on the needs of the business or customers. This approach focuses on the delivery of services, rather than just the management of storage components or devices. When a service provisioning request is received, the service-focused approach provides a framework to determine the appropriate workflow to fulfill that request. This may include provisioning additional storage resources, modifying existing configurations, or other tasks to meet the service level agreements (SLAs) of the business or customer. Explanation:
Reference: Section 1.3 Service-Oriented Storage Provisioning, page 16.
C
Explanation:
Using a service-focused approach allows the storage infrastructure to be managed based on the needs of the business or customers. This approach focuses on the delivery of services, rather than just the management of storage components or devices. When a service provisioning request is received, the service-focused approach provides a framework to determine the appropriate workflow to fulfill that request. This may include provisioning additional storage resources, modifying existing configurations, or other tasks to meet the service level agreements (SLAs) of the business or customer. Explanation:
Reference: Section 1.3 Service-Oriented Storage Provisioning, page 16.
Question #30
Which block storage volume allocates all of the physical storage specified at the time it is created?
- A . Thick provisioned LUN
- B . Thin provisioned LUN
- C . Thin provisioned RAID
- D . Thick provisioned RAID
Correct Answer: A
Question #31
In a data center environment, what is an advantage of using parity-based RAID protection over mirroring?
- A . Eliminates the write penalty for improving the performance
- B . Improves the efficiency of logical disk drives in the RAID set
- C . Increases the performance of small write I/O operation
- D . Reduces the storage capacity required to protect the data
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Parity-based RAID protection uses fewer physical drives than mirroring to provide the same level of data protection. It does this by using error correction codes to detect and correct errors in the data. This allows for a much more efficient use of storage capacity, as it only requires the same amount of storage capacity as the actual data, rather than requiring twice the storage capacity as with mirroring. Additionally, parity RAID systems have the advantage of being able to recover from drive failures without having to wait for the data to be rewritten to the remaining drives, as is the case with mirroring.
D
Explanation:
Parity-based RAID protection uses fewer physical drives than mirroring to provide the same level of data protection. It does this by using error correction codes to detect and correct errors in the data. This allows for a much more efficient use of storage capacity, as it only requires the same amount of storage capacity as the actual data, rather than requiring twice the storage capacity as with mirroring. Additionally, parity RAID systems have the advantage of being able to recover from drive failures without having to wait for the data to be rewritten to the remaining drives, as is the case with mirroring.
Question #32
A customer uses FCIP to connect local and remote FC SANs. The remote SAN is continuously replicated to, and used to store
daily backup data. Latency over the IP WAN increases to unacceptable levels during peak replication periods. No other data
transfer services using the WAN experience the same latency problem.
What is the likely cause of the data replication performance issue?
- A . IP packet segmentation
- B . FCIP gateway FC ports set to EX_Port mode
- C . Ethernet frame segmentation
- D . FCIP gateway FC ports set to TE_Port mode
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
When an Ethernet frame is larger than the maximum transmission unit (MTU) of a link, it must be fragmented into smaller pieces, which are sent separately and reassembled at the receiver. This is known as IP packet segmentation. Fragmentation and reassembly of the IP packets can add significant latency and can cause performance issues for FCIP. In this scenario, the issue is specific to data replication, indicating that the issue is with the FCIP configuration or the replication application. The other options, B, C, and D, are unrelated to the issue.
A
Explanation:
When an Ethernet frame is larger than the maximum transmission unit (MTU) of a link, it must be fragmented into smaller pieces, which are sent separately and reassembled at the receiver. This is known as IP packet segmentation. Fragmentation and reassembly of the IP packets can add significant latency and can cause performance issues for FCIP. In this scenario, the issue is specific to data replication, indicating that the issue is with the FCIP configuration or the replication application. The other options, B, C, and D, are unrelated to the issue.
Question #33
What set of components are part of a block-based storage array controller?
- A . Front-end ports
Cache
Link Control Cards - B . Front-end ports
Cache - C . Front-end ports
Back-end ports
Cache - D . Front-end ports
Back-end-ports
Cache
Link Control Cards
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Front-end ports connect the storage array controller to the host servers, while back-end ports connect it to the disk drives. The cache provides temporary storage for frequently accessed data to speed up I/O operations. Link control cards manage communication between the front-end and back-end ports.
Explanation:
Reference: EMC Education Services. (2016). Information Storage and Management:
Storing, Managing, and Protecting Digital Information. Wiley. Chapter 3, page 51.
D
Explanation:
Front-end ports connect the storage array controller to the host servers, while back-end ports connect it to the disk drives. The cache provides temporary storage for frequently accessed data to speed up I/O operations. Link control cards manage communication between the front-end and back-end ports.
Explanation:
Reference: EMC Education Services. (2016). Information Storage and Management:
Storing, Managing, and Protecting Digital Information. Wiley. Chapter 3, page 51.
Question #34
Which Dell EMC product is a disk-based backup and recovery solution that provides inherent source-based deduplication?
- A . Data Domain
- B . SRDF
- C . TimeFinder
- D . Avamar
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Reference: https://www.dellemc.com/en-us/collaterals/unauth/technical-guides-support-information/products/ networking-4/docu85224.pdf
D
Explanation:
Reference: https://www.dellemc.com/en-us/collaterals/unauth/technical-guides-support-information/products/ networking-4/docu85224.pdf
Question #35
Refer to the Exhibit:
What type of process, when performed on data, would produce the result shown?
- A . Replication
- B . Deduplication
- C . Archive
- D . Migration
Correct Answer: B
Question #36
What occurs when a company’s IT infrastructure security is breached by a passive attack?
- A . data is altered by an unauthorized user
- B . unauthorized system access is obtained
- C . access to services is denied
- D . availability of data is affected
Correct Answer: B
Question #37
Which file system provides a streaming interface using the MapReduce framework?
- A . CIFS
- B . HDFS
- C . NFS
- D . NTFS
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
HDFS – Presents a streaming interface to run any application of choice using the MapReduce framework.
B
Explanation:
HDFS – Presents a streaming interface to run any application of choice using the MapReduce framework.
Question #38
Which modern technology enables data to be securely collected and processed at point of creation to create new value?
- A . Private cloud
- B . Edge Computing
- C . Big Data
- D . AI/ML
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Edge computing is a modern technology that enables data to be securely collected and processed at the point of creation, allowing for new value to be created from the data. Edge computing uses distributed computing resources such as routers and gateways to process data close to the source, which reduces latency, improves efficiency and reduces the overall cost of data processing. Edge computing also enables data to be securely collected and processed in a decentralized manner, which improves data security and privacy. Additionally, edge computing enables the data to be processed in real-time, allowing for faster responses and more accurate results.
B
Explanation:
Edge computing is a modern technology that enables data to be securely collected and processed at the point of creation, allowing for new value to be created from the data. Edge computing uses distributed computing resources such as routers and gateways to process data close to the source, which reduces latency, improves efficiency and reduces the overall cost of data processing. Edge computing also enables data to be securely collected and processed in a decentralized manner, which improves data security and privacy. Additionally, edge computing enables the data to be processed in real-time, allowing for faster responses and more accurate results.
Question #39
An Ethernet switch has eight ports and all ports must be operational for 24 hours; from
Monday through Friday. However, a failure of Port 5 occurs as follows:
Tuesday = 6 AM to 7 AM Thursday = 5 PM to 9 PM Friday = 8 AM to 9 AM
What is the MTBF of Port 5?
- A . 30 hours
- B . 32 hours
- C . 40 hours
- D . 38 hours
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Reference: https://www.sqconline.com/mtbf-calculator-results
C
Explanation:
Reference: https://www.sqconline.com/mtbf-calculator-results
Question #40
Based on the exhibit, what does the “X” represent?
- A . NACK SYN
- B . ACK SYN
- C . SYN NACK
- D . SYN ACK
Correct Answer: D
Question #41
What is a feature of 5G technology?
- A . Higher LAN bandwidth
- B . Higher connectivity density
- C . Higher WAN bandwidth
- D . Higher transmission distances
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
5G technology is the fifth generation of cellular mobile networks. It is a significant upgrade from 4G, offering faster speeds, improved latency, and increased capacity. 5G networks are designed to provide higher WAN bandwidth, allowing for faster data transmission and higher download speeds. Additionally, 5G networks offer improved coverage, allowing more devices to be connected at once, and they offer greater mobility, allowing devices to move between networks without a loss of connection.
C
Explanation:
5G technology is the fifth generation of cellular mobile networks. It is a significant upgrade from 4G, offering faster speeds, improved latency, and increased capacity. 5G networks are designed to provide higher WAN bandwidth, allowing for faster data transmission and higher download speeds. Additionally, 5G networks offer improved coverage, allowing more devices to be connected at once, and they offer greater mobility, allowing devices to move between networks without a loss of connection.
Question #42
In a RAID 6 array with four disks, what is the total usable data storage capacity on the array if the disk size is 200 GB?
- A . 200 GB
- B . 400 GB
- C . 600 GB
- D . 800 GB
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E19871-01/820-1847-20/appendixf.html http://www.raid-calculator.com/default.aspx
B
Explanation:
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E19871-01/820-1847-20/appendixf.html http://www.raid-calculator.com/default.aspx
Question #43
Why is it important for organizations to implement a multi-site remote replication solution?
- A . Ensure data protection is always available if there are any single site failures
- B . Provide consistent near-zero RPO in the event of source and remote site failures
- C . Perform synchronous replication with low network bandwidth
- D . Recover data to any point-in-time in the event of a remote site failure
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Reference: https://www.mycloudwiki.com/san/storage-based-replication-overview/
B
Explanation:
Reference: https://www.mycloudwiki.com/san/storage-based-replication-overview/
Question #44
What accurately describes an object-based storage device (OSD)?
- A . One object can be placed inside another object
- B . Objects are created based on the name and location of the file
- C . Objects exist at the same level in the address space
- D . Numerous objects can be stored in a single namespace
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Reference: https://www.itproportal.com/2014/06/05/5-object-storage-requirements-your-business-needs-to- consider/
C
Explanation:
Reference: https://www.itproportal.com/2014/06/05/5-object-storage-requirements-your-business-needs-to- consider/
Question #45
Which Dell EMC product is a software-defined storage platform that abstracts, pools, and automates a data center’s physical storage infrastructure?
- A . XtremIO
- B . ViPR Controller
- C . VxFlex OS
- D . PowerMax
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Reference: https://www.delltechnologies.com/en-us/software-downloads/index.htm#!freeware
B
Explanation:
Reference: https://www.delltechnologies.com/en-us/software-downloads/index.htm#!freeware
Question #46
What is the functionality of the application server in a Mobile Device Management?
- A . Perform administration and management of all unmanaged devices
- B . Authenticate the device that requests access
- C . Perform administration and management of all managed devices
- D . Authorize devices directed to the server
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
MDM is a control that restricts access to an organization’s resources only to authorized mobile devices.
B
Explanation:
MDM is a control that restricts access to an organization’s resources only to authorized mobile devices.
Question #47
A user lost access to a key VM due to a hardware failure. A proxy server regularly takes PIT snapshots of the VM to protect the data.
What type of data protection method is this called’?
- A . Agent-based
- B . Backup as a service
- C . Local replication
- D . Image-based
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
This is an example of an image-based data protection method. With image-based data protection, a proxy server regularly takes Point-in-Time (PIT) snapshots of the virtual machine (VM) that is being protected. These snapshots are then stored in a secure location, allowing the user to quickly restore access to the VM in the event of a hardware failure. This type of data protection is effective for preserving the state of the VM, as well as any data stored on it, making it a reliable and secure way to protect data.
D
Explanation:
This is an example of an image-based data protection method. With image-based data protection, a proxy server regularly takes Point-in-Time (PIT) snapshots of the virtual machine (VM) that is being protected. These snapshots are then stored in a secure location, allowing the user to quickly restore access to the VM in the event of a hardware failure. This type of data protection is effective for preserving the state of the VM, as well as any data stored on it, making it a reliable and secure way to protect data.
Question #48
What is a function of the application hardening process’?
- A . Perform penetration testing and validate OS patch management
- B . Disable unnecessary application features or services
- C . Isolate VM network to ensure the default VM configurations are unchanged
- D . Validate unused application files and programs to ensure consistency
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Application hardening is the process of configuring an application to reduce its attack surface and make it more secure. The process involves several steps, including removing unnecessary features or services, enabling security features, configuring access controls, and implementing secure coding practices. By disabling unnecessary features or services, the application becomes less vulnerable to attacks that exploit these features or services. For example, an application that does not need to run as a privileged user should be configured to run with limited privileges. Additionally, disabling or removing unused or unnecessary application files and programs can help reduce the attack surface. This makes it harder for attackers to exploit vulnerabilities in the application. Penetration testing and patch management are also important components of application hardening, but they are not the primary function of the process. Explanation:
Reference: Section 4.2 Security Hardening and Monitoring, page 228.
B
Explanation:
Application hardening is the process of configuring an application to reduce its attack surface and make it more secure. The process involves several steps, including removing unnecessary features or services, enabling security features, configuring access controls, and implementing secure coding practices. By disabling unnecessary features or services, the application becomes less vulnerable to attacks that exploit these features or services. For example, an application that does not need to run as a privileged user should be configured to run with limited privileges. Additionally, disabling or removing unused or unnecessary application files and programs can help reduce the attack surface. This makes it harder for attackers to exploit vulnerabilities in the application. Penetration testing and patch management are also important components of application hardening, but they are not the primary function of the process. Explanation:
Reference: Section 4.2 Security Hardening and Monitoring, page 228.
Question #49
Refer to the Exhibit:
What type of FC port does the "X" represent?
- A . F_port
- B . NI_port
- C . N_port
- D . E_port
Correct Answer: C
Question #50
What is the result of increasing the number of FC switches in a full mesh topology?
- A . Reduces available node ports for ISL connectivity
- B . Reduces number of storage and compute ports for node connectivity
- C . Reduces switch ports available for node connectivity
- D . Reduces switch ports available bandwidth for node connectivity
Correct Answer: C