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DELL EMC DEA-1TT4 Associate – Information Storage and Management Version 4.0 Exam Online Training

Question #1

What is an accurate statement about Governance?

  • A . Restrict access to certain users
  • B . Ensure removal of security risks
  • C . Authorize policy-making decisions
  • D . Demonstrate adherence to polices

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Correct Answer: C
Question #2

Which exhibit represents a Type 1 hypervisor?

A)

B)

C)

D)

  • A . Option A
  • B . Option B
  • C . Option C
  • D . Option D

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Correct Answer: A
Question #3

An Ethernet switch has eight ports and all ports must be operational for 24 hours, from Monday through Friday.

However, a failure of Port4 occurs as follows:

• Monday = 8 PM to 9 PM

• Wednesday 7 PM to 9 PM

• Thursday = 6 AM to 9 AM

• Saturday = 4 PM to 7 PM

What is the MTTR of Port 4?

  • A . 2 hours
  • B . 3 hours
  • C . 28 hours
  • D . 38 hours

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Correct Answer: A
Question #4

What accurately describes an iSCSI HBA?

  • A . Performs both iSCSI and TCP/IP processing
  • B . Requires CPU cycles for TCP/IP processing
  • C . Requires a software adapter with built-in functionality
  • D . Enables transmission of data through iSCSI tunneling

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Correct Answer: A
A

Explanation:

Reference: https://www.dell.com/downloads/global/power/ps4q09-20090419-McConnell.pdf

Question #5

When using the erasure coding technique in an object-based storage system, data is divided into 12 data segments and 4 coding segments.

What is the maximum number of disk drive failures against which data is protected by the configuration?

  • A . 3
  • B . 4
  • C . 8
  • D . 12

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Correct Answer: B
Question #6

What is a key advantage of cloning a virtual machine (VM)?

  • A . Ability to run new VMs simultaneously with the same IP address.
  • B . Reduces the time required to create multiple copies of a VM.
  • C . Improves the performance of an existing VM and new VMs.
  • D . Eliminates the need to create multiple snapshots for a VM.

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Correct Answer: B
Question #7

A company is using an intrusion detection and prevention system (IDPS) to scan and analyze intrusion events.

Which IDPS technique uses a database that contains known attack patterns?

  • A . Role-based
  • B . Profile-based
  • C . Signature-based
  • D . Anomaly-based

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Correct Answer: C
C

Reference: https://pdfs.semanticscholar.org/e874/32283e90da5bceb3b17550570ec3a210f43c.pdf

Question #8

DRAG DROP

In a backup operation, what are the correct sequence of steps after the backup server initiates the scheduled backup process?

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Correct Answer: Backup server instructs the storage node to load the backup media in the backup device Backup client send the data to the storage node and updates the backup catalog on the backup server Storage node sends data to the backup device Storage node sends metadata and media information to the backup server Backup server updates the backup catalog



Question #9

In an archiving environment, how is a content address created in a content addressable storage (CAS) system to store an object?

  • A . From the metadata of an object.
  • B . By using the logical address of the memory space.
  • C . From the binary representation of an object.
  • D . By using the physical address of the storage device.

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Correct Answer: C
Question #10

What is a benefit of link aggregation?

  • A . Optimizes fabric performance by distributing network traffic across ISLs.
  • B . Improves ISL utilization by increasing the network traffic on a specific ISL.
  • C . Yields a higher throughput by combining two parallel ISLs into a single physical ISL.
  • D . Saves bandwidth by restricting traffic to a specific potentially congested ISL.

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Correct Answer: A
A

Explanation:

Reference: https://www.mycloudwiki.com/san/fc-san-topologies/

Question #11

In a compute-based storage area network (SAN), what is a function of the metadata manager?

  • A . Holds cluster-wide mapping information and load balancing in a compute-based SAN.
  • B . Performs the I/O operations on the local storage of a compute system as requested by a client.
  • C . Provides an interface to the software-defined storage controller.
  • D . Controls all data read and write operations in a compute-based SAN.

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Correct Answer: A
Question #12

Why is it important for organizations to store, protect, and manage their data?

  • A . Reduce the amount of data to be replicated, migrated, and backed up.
  • B . Rapidly develop and deploy modern applications for business improvement.
  • C . Develop new business opportunities by leveraging existing data.
  • D . Reduce the complexity in managing the data center environment.

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Correct Answer: C
Question #13

A Fibre Channel switch has eight ports and all ports must be operational 24×7.

However, a failure of Port 5 occurs on a particular week as follows:

• Monday = 11 AM to 12 PM

• Thursday = 7 AM to 11 AM

• Saturday = 11 AM to 1 PM

What is the availability of Port 5 in that week?

  • A . 93%
  • B . 94.1%
  • C . 95.8%
  • D . 97%

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Correct Answer: C
Question #14

Which layer of the OSI model provides the functional and procedural methods to transfer data between network entities?

  • A . Data link
  • B . Presentation
  • C . Session
  • D . Application

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Correct Answer: A
A

Explanation:

Reference: https://en.wikibooks.org/wiki/Network_Plus_Certification/Management/OSI_Model

Question #15

What is an accurate statement about variable prefetching?

  • A . Many blocks that have recently been written to storage by the compute system are retrieved and placed in cache.
  • B . Many non-contiguous blocks that are not currently required can be retrieved from cache in advance.
  • C . Storage system prefetches data in multiples of the original I/O request size from the compute system.
  • D . Storage system prefetches many non-contiguous blocks of data, with varied sizes, from cache.

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Correct Answer: C
Question #16

DRAG DROP

Match the Fibre Channel (FC) Layers with their respective functions.

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Correct Answer: FC0-physical

FC1-encode/decode

FC2-routing, flowcontrol

FC3-Common service

FC4-mapping

Explanation:

Reference: https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&source=web&cd=10&ved=2ahUKEwjoirWjjKblAhXyxoUKHbI_AU4QFjAJegQIAxAC&url=https%3A%2F%2Fwww.dell.com%2Fcommunity%2Fs%2Fvjauj58549%2Fattachments%2Fvjauj58549%2Fconnectrix%2F4498%2F1%2FSC_Distance_Reference_GA-SG-061-00%255B1%255D.pdf&usg=AOvVaw3SqLy5ETVbbmIBfl579cca


Question #17

Which Dell EMC product is a hyper-scale storage infrastructure that provides universal accessibility with support for object and HDFS?

  • A . ViPR Controller
  • B . PowerMax
  • C . Isilon
  • D . Elastic Cloud Storage

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Correct Answer: D
D

Explanation:

Reference: https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&source=web&cd=10&ved=2ahUKEwibs5yDjablAhVCzBoKHbc6AhgQFjAJegQIAxAC&url=https%3A%2F%2Fwww.dell.com%2Fcommunity%2Fs%2Fvjauj58549%2Fattachments%2Fvjauj58549%2Fsolutions-ch%2F516%2F1%2Fh13999-hadoop-ecs-data-services- wp.pdf&usg=AOvVaw1jTgO2qHQLxapR5zvgXWpH

Question #18

Which cloud deployment model allows provisioning of a cloud infrastructure only for use by a single organization having multiple consumers?

  • A . Public cloud
  • B . Multi-cloud
  • C . Hybrid cloud
  • D . Private cloud

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Correct Answer: D
D

Explanation:

Reference: https://www.paranet.com/blog/bid/128265/The-Four-Types-of-Cloud-Computing-Models

Question #19

A company plans to deploy a new application in their environment. The new application requires 2 TB of storage space. During peak workloads, the application is expected to generate 4500 IOPS with a typical I/O size of 4 KB. The capacity of each available disk drive is 250 GB. In addition, the maximum number of IOPS a drive can perform at with a 70% utilization is 90 IOPS.

What is the minimum number of disk drives needed to meet the application’s capacity and performance requirements for a RAID 0 configuration?

  • A . 8
  • B . 40
  • C . 50
  • D . 70

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Correct Answer: C
C

Explanation:

Reference: https://www.dell.com/community/Student-Discussions/E10-001-Exam-QUESTION-Query/td- p/7099780

Question #20

Which technology decouples the OS, applications, and user state from a physical compute system?

  • A . Application virtualization
  • B . Storage virtualization
  • C . Thin client virtualization
  • D . Desktop virtualization

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Correct Answer: D

Question #21

What is the goal of a business continuity solution?

  • A . Reduce the amount of investment in protecting an organization’s business-related data.
  • B . Avoid a disaster in a data protection environment to control the loss of data.
  • C . Ensure information availability that is required to conduct vital business operations.
  • D . Eliminate security threats in a data protection environment for continuous access to data.

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Correct Answer: C
C

Explanation:

Reference: https://www.oreilly.com/library/view/information-storage-and/9781118236963/9781118236963c09.xhtml

Question #22

What is a function of the metadata service in an object-based storage device (OSD)?

  • A . Generates the file system namespace from the file contents.
  • B . Manages both physical and logical disks on which the user data is stored.
  • C . Manages the storage space for all remote clients.
  • D . Maintains the object IDs and file system namespace mappings.

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Correct Answer: D
Question #23

DRAG DROP

Match the types of attack with their respective description.

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Correct Answer:


Question #24

What accurately describes virtual SAN (VSAN) trunking?

  • A . Reduces the utilization of ISLs by removing all the ISLs configured between the FC switches.
  • B . Increases the number of E_ports used for the ISLs to transfer multiple VSAN traffic.
  • C . Increases the complexity of managing the FC SAN with an increase in the number of ISLs.
  • D . Reduces the number of ISLs between switches that are configured with multiple VSANs.

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Correct Answer: D
D

Explanation:

Reference: https://www.mycloudwiki.com/san/fc-san-virtualization/

Question #25

What does an area ID represent in Fibre Channel (FC) addressing?

  • A . Group of switch ports
  • B . Switch within a group
  • C . Port within a group
  • D . Group of switches

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Correct Answer: A
Question #26

Based on the exhibit,

What does the "X", "Y", and "Z" represent in a NAS environment?

  • A . X = FC SAN, Y = IP Network, and Z = NAS Gateway
  • B . X = IP Network, Y = FC SAN, and Z = NAS Gateway
  • C . X = FC SAN, Y = NAS Gateway, and Z= IP Network
  • D . X = IP Network, Y = NAS Gateway, and Z = FC SAN

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Correct Answer: B
Question #27

Which type of zoning does the "X" represent?

  • A . Fabric zoning
  • B . WWN zoning
  • C . Mixed zoning
  • D . Port zoning

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Correct Answer: B
Question #28

Which functionality does a Control layer provide in a software-defined networking architecture?

  • A . Defining the network behavior through various policies.
  • B . Making decisions on how the packets should be forwarded.
  • C . Establishing communications between the Infrastructure and Interface layers.
  • D . Forwarding data packets based on the requirements from the Application layer.

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Correct Answer: B
Question #29

What accurately describes an Incident in a storage infrastructure?

  • A . Unknown root cause of one or more disruptions to service.
  • B . Any event that may lead to the disruption of a service.
  • C . Support request to help access an IT resource.
  • D . Any event that may create a change in correcting a known error.

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Correct Answer: B
Question #30

What accurately describes the scale-out storage architecture?

  • A . Scales the capacity only within a single storage system.
  • B . Provides a fixed capacity ceiling that limits scalability beyond a storage system.
  • C . Provides the capability to maximize its capacity by adding nodes to the cluster.
  • D . Restricts scalability to the limits of the storage controllers.

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Correct Answer: C
C

Explanation:

Reference: https://whatis.techtarget.com/definition/scale-out-storage

Question #31

Which technology combines NAND flash memory into a hard disk drive and is a single, integrated device incorporating both types of storage?

  • A . Solid-state drive
  • B . Dual drive
  • C . Fibre Channel drive
  • D . Solid-state hybrid drive

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Correct Answer: D
D

Explanation:

Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hybrid_drive#Solid-state_hybrid_drive

Question #32

Which Dell EMC product creates a server and IP-based SAN from direct-attached server storage to deliver flexible and scalable performance and capacity on demand?

  • A . PowerMax
  • B . VxFlex OS
  • C . ViPR Controller
  • D . XtremIO

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Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

Reference: https://www.dellemc.com/mk-mk/collaterals/unauth/white-papers/products/ready-solutions/h17332_dellemc_vxflex_os_networking_best_practices.pdf

Question #33

Which Internet of Things (IoT) component is responsible for the automation of operations by applying a force based on the dynamics of data?

  • A . Actuator
  • B . Switch
  • C . Sensor
  • D . Gateway

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Correct Answer: A
Question #34

In an FCoE switch, which function is provided by the Fibre Channel Forwarder (FCF)?

  • A . Communication bridge between CEE and IP networks
  • B . Communication bridge between FC and FCIP networks
  • C . Communication bridge between CEE and FCIP networks
  • D . Communication bridge between CEE and FC networks

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Correct Answer: D
Question #35

Which technology is used in the media and entertainment industry to enable content-based search activity and to create video subtitles using natural language processing?

  • A . Machine learning
  • B . Social networking
  • C . Cloud computing
  • D . Internet of Things

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Correct Answer: A
Question #36

Why are organizations moving towards a modern data center implementation?

  • A . Develop modern applications in the public cloud without having the right skill set in-house.
  • B . Ability to be agile, operate in real time, and develop intelligent products.
  • C . Deploy only unified and converged IT resources to reduce the management complexity.
  • D . Reduce the cost of managing data center components by using a self-service catalog.

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Correct Answer: B
B

Explanation:

Reference: https://www.actualtechmedia.com/wp-content/uploads/2018/05/Building-a-Modern-Data-Center-ebook.pdf

Question #37

What is a key objective to performing continuous replication?

  • A . Avoid performing data archiving.
  • B . Reduce the RPO to near-zero.
  • C . Reduce the deduplication ratio.
  • D . Avoid performing data backups.

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Correct Answer: B
Question #38

What accurately describes a shared pool in virtual provisioning?

  • A . Should contain only homogeneous disk drive types.
  • B . Supports a single RAID protection level.
  • C . Consists of only a virtual storage volume.
  • D . Should contain only physical drives with different sizes.

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Correct Answer: B
Question #39

Which data archiving component scans primary storage to find the files that meet the archiving policy?

  • A . Archive storage
  • B . Archive database server
  • C . Archive agent
  • D . Archive stub file

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Correct Answer: C
Question #40

In the event of a disk failure, which RAID level enables quick data reconstruction?

  • A . RAID 3
  • B . RAID 5
  • C . RAID 6
  • D . RAID 10

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Correct Answer: D
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