Question #1
Which of the following is primarily a confidentiality concern?
- A . Eavesdropping
- B . Impersonating
- C . Destructing
- D . Altering
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Eavesdropping is an electronic attack where digital communications are intercepted by an individual whom they are not intended1. This is a confidentiality concern because it violates the principle of limiting access to information to authorized people only. Confidentiality is a set of rules that limits access to information1. Eavesdropping can compromise the secrecy of the information and expose sensitive data to unauthorized parties.
Reference: Confidentiality, Integrity & Availability Concerns | CompTIA IT Fundamentals FC0-U61 | 6.1
A
Explanation:
Eavesdropping is an electronic attack where digital communications are intercepted by an individual whom they are not intended1. This is a confidentiality concern because it violates the principle of limiting access to information to authorized people only. Confidentiality is a set of rules that limits access to information1. Eavesdropping can compromise the secrecy of the information and expose sensitive data to unauthorized parties.
Reference: Confidentiality, Integrity & Availability Concerns | CompTIA IT Fundamentals FC0-U61 | 6.1
Question #2
A software developer develops a software program and writes a document with step-by-step instructions on how to use the software. The developer wants to ensure no other person or company will publish this document for public use.
Which of the following should the developer use to BEST protect the document?
- A . Patent
- B . Trademark
- C . Watermark
- D . Copyright
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
A document that explains how to use a software program is an example of a written work that expresses the original ideas of the developer. A copyright is a legal protection that grants the developer the exclusive right to publish, distribute, and control the use of the document.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 9: Intellectual Property1
D
Explanation:
A document that explains how to use a software program is an example of a written work that expresses the original ideas of the developer. A copyright is a legal protection that grants the developer the exclusive right to publish, distribute, and control the use of the document.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 9: Intellectual Property1
Question #3
Which of the following database concepts would MOST likely use a CSV file?
- A . Data querying
- B . Data reports
- C . Data importing
- D . Data persistence
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A CSV file is a comma-separated values file that stores data in a tabular format. A CSV file can be used to import data from one database to another, or from other sources such as spreadsheets, text files, or web pages. Data importing is the process of transferring data between different systems or formats1.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 5: Database Fundamentals2
C
Explanation:
A CSV file is a comma-separated values file that stores data in a tabular format. A CSV file can be used to import data from one database to another, or from other sources such as spreadsheets, text files, or web pages. Data importing is the process of transferring data between different systems or formats1.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 5: Database Fundamentals2
Question #4
A help desk technician encounters an issue and wants to find out if a colleague has encountered the same issue before.
Which of the following should the technician do FIRST?
- A . Check Knowledge Base.
- B . Search local logs.
- C . Research possible theories.
- D . No. of users.
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
A Knowledge Base is a collection of information that provides solutions to common problems or issues encountered by IT professionals. A Knowledge Base can be accessed online or offline, and can be maintained by an organization or a vendor. A help desk technician should check the Knowledge Base first before trying other methods, as it may contain the answer or a workaround for the issue3.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 6: Security2
A
Explanation:
A Knowledge Base is a collection of information that provides solutions to common problems or issues encountered by IT professionals. A Knowledge Base can be accessed online or offline, and can be maintained by an organization or a vendor. A help desk technician should check the Knowledge Base first before trying other methods, as it may contain the answer or a workaround for the issue3.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 6: Security2
Question #5
Which of the following BEST describes the practice of providing user credentials when logging onto the network?
- A . Output
- B . Storage
- C . Input
- D . Processing
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Providing user credentials when logging onto the network is an example of input, which is the process of entering data or commands into a computer system. Input can be done through various devices, such as keyboards, mice, scanners, cameras, microphones, or biometric scanners. User credentials are a form of input that identify and authenticate the user to the network and grant them access to resources1.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 2: Computing Basics2
C
Explanation:
Providing user credentials when logging onto the network is an example of input, which is the process of entering data or commands into a computer system. Input can be done through various devices, such as keyboards, mice, scanners, cameras, microphones, or biometric scanners. User credentials are a form of input that identify and authenticate the user to the network and grant them access to resources1.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 2: Computing Basics2
Question #6
Which of the following allows wireless devices to communicate to a wired network?
- A . Modem
- B . Switch
- C . Firewall
- D . Access point
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
An access point is a device that allows wireless devices to communicate to a wired network. An access point acts as a bridge between the wireless and wired networks, converting radio signals from wireless devices into data packets that can be transmitted over the network cable. An access point can also extend the range and coverage of a wireless network3.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 4: Networking Concepts2
D
Explanation:
An access point is a device that allows wireless devices to communicate to a wired network. An access point acts as a bridge between the wireless and wired networks, converting radio signals from wireless devices into data packets that can be transmitted over the network cable. An access point can also extend the range and coverage of a wireless network3.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 4: Networking Concepts2
Question #7
Which of the following computing devices would be used to provide a centralized means to distribute services to a group of clients and usually possesses a role on a LAN?
- A . Laptop
- B . Workstation
- C . Mobile phone
- D . Server
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
A server is a computing device that provides a centralized means to distribute services to a group of clients and usually possesses a role on a LAN. A server can perform various functions, such as hosting applications, databases, files, web pages, email, or print jobs. A server can also manage network resources, such as security, user accounts, or backups. A server typically has more processing power, memory, and storage capacity than a client device4.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 3: IT Infrastructure2
D
Explanation:
A server is a computing device that provides a centralized means to distribute services to a group of clients and usually possesses a role on a LAN. A server can perform various functions, such as hosting applications, databases, files, web pages, email, or print jobs. A server can also manage network resources, such as security, user accounts, or backups. A server typically has more processing power, memory, and storage capacity than a client device4.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 3: IT Infrastructure2
Question #8
Which of the following describes something in a database that refers to the unique identifier in the parent table?
- A . Attribute
- B . Constraint
- C . Foreign key
- D . Schema
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A foreign key is a column or a set of columns in a table that refers to the unique identifier (or primary key) in another table. A foreign key establishes a relationship between two tables and ensures referential integrity. For example, in a database that stores information about students and courses, the student table may have a column called student_id that is the primary key for each student record. The course table may have a column called student_id that is the foreign key that refers to the student_id in the student table. This way, the database can link each course record to the corresponding student record34.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 5: Database Fundamentals2; What is RDBMS (Relational Database Management System) – Javatpoint5; What is a Relational Database Management System? | Microsoft Azure6
C
Explanation:
A foreign key is a column or a set of columns in a table that refers to the unique identifier (or primary key) in another table. A foreign key establishes a relationship between two tables and ensures referential integrity. For example, in a database that stores information about students and courses, the student table may have a column called student_id that is the primary key for each student record. The course table may have a column called student_id that is the foreign key that refers to the student_id in the student table. This way, the database can link each course record to the corresponding student record34.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 5: Database Fundamentals2; What is RDBMS (Relational Database Management System) – Javatpoint5; What is a Relational Database Management System? | Microsoft Azure6
Question #9
For which of the following is a relational database management system MOST commonly used?
- A . Building flowcharts
- B . Storing information
- C . Generating reports
- D . Creating diagrams
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A relational database management system (RDBMS) is most commonly used for storing information in a structured and organized way. A RDBMS stores data in tables, which consist of rows and columns. Each row represents a record or an entity, and each column represents an attribute or a property of the entity. A RDBMS allows users to create, update, delete, and query data using a standard language called SQL (Structured Query Language). A RDBMS also enforces rules and constraints to ensure data integrity and consistency3465.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 5: Database Fundamentals2; What is RDBMS (Relational Database Management System) – Javatpoint5; What is a Relational Database Management System? | Microsoft Azure
B
Explanation:
A relational database management system (RDBMS) is most commonly used for storing information in a structured and organized way. A RDBMS stores data in tables, which consist of rows and columns. Each row represents a record or an entity, and each column represents an attribute or a property of the entity. A RDBMS allows users to create, update, delete, and query data using a standard language called SQL (Structured Query Language). A RDBMS also enforces rules and constraints to ensure data integrity and consistency3465.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 5: Database Fundamentals2; What is RDBMS (Relational Database Management System) – Javatpoint5; What is a Relational Database Management System? | Microsoft Azure
Question #10
Which of the following BEST describes an application running on a typical operating system?
- A . Process
- B . Thread
- C . Function
- D . Task
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
An application running on a typical operating system is an example of a process, which is a program or a set of instructions that is loaded into memory and executed by the CPU. A process can have one or more threads, which are subunits of execution that share the resources of the process. A process can also perform one or more tasks, which are units of work that the process needs to accomplish. A process can also call one or more functions, which are blocks of code that perform a specific operation and return a value123.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 2: Computing Basics4; What is a Process? – Definition from Techopedia5; What is a Thread? – Definition from Techopedia6
A
Explanation:
An application running on a typical operating system is an example of a process, which is a program or a set of instructions that is loaded into memory and executed by the CPU. A process can have one or more threads, which are subunits of execution that share the resources of the process. A process can also perform one or more tasks, which are units of work that the process needs to accomplish. A process can also call one or more functions, which are blocks of code that perform a specific operation and return a value123.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 2: Computing Basics4; What is a Process? – Definition from Techopedia5; What is a Thread? – Definition from Techopedia6
Question #11
The broadcast signal from a recently installed wireless access point is not as strong as expected.
Which of the following actions would BEST improve the signal strength?
- A . Update from 802.11b to 802.11g.
- B . Ensure sources of EMI are removed.
- C . Enable WPA2-Enterprise.
- D . Use WiFi Protected Setup.
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
The broadcast signal from a wireless access point can be affected by various factors, such as distance, obstacles, interference, and configuration. One of the possible causes of weak signal strength is electromagnetic interference (EMI), which is the disruption of wireless communication by devices or objects that emit electromagnetic waves, such as microwaves, cordless phones, power lines, or fluorescent lights. To improve the signal strength, the user should ensure that sources of EMI are removed or relocated away from the wireless access point and the wireless devices78.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 4: Networking Concepts4; How
to Improve Your Wireless Network Performance – HP® Tech Takes9
B
Explanation:
The broadcast signal from a wireless access point can be affected by various factors, such as distance, obstacles, interference, and configuration. One of the possible causes of weak signal strength is electromagnetic interference (EMI), which is the disruption of wireless communication by devices or objects that emit electromagnetic waves, such as microwaves, cordless phones, power lines, or fluorescent lights. To improve the signal strength, the user should ensure that sources of EMI are removed or relocated away from the wireless access point and the wireless devices78.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 4: Networking Concepts4; How
to Improve Your Wireless Network Performance – HP® Tech Takes9
Question #12
A user is getting an error message when trying to go to a website. A technician asks the user a few questions to find out more about the issue. The technician opens a browser locally and browses to the same site as the user.
Which of the following troubleshooting steps is the technician using by browsing to the same site?
- A . Establish a plan of action.
- B . Gather information
- C . Duplicate the problem.
- D . Find the root cause.
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The troubleshooting methodology is a systematic approach to solving problems that involves several steps, such as identifying the problem, establishing a theory of probable cause, testing the theory, establishing a plan of action, implementing the solution, verifying functionality, and documenting the findings. One of the steps in identifying the problem is to duplicate the problem, which means to reproduce the same error or issue that the user is experiencing. This can help the technician to verify the symptoms, narrow down the scope, and eliminate possible causes1011.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 7: Explain the Troubleshooting Methodology4; Troubleshooting Methodology | IT Support and Help Desk | CompTIA12
C
Explanation:
The troubleshooting methodology is a systematic approach to solving problems that involves several steps, such as identifying the problem, establishing a theory of probable cause, testing the theory, establishing a plan of action, implementing the solution, verifying functionality, and documenting the findings. One of the steps in identifying the problem is to duplicate the problem, which means to reproduce the same error or issue that the user is experiencing. This can help the technician to verify the symptoms, narrow down the scope, and eliminate possible causes1011.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 7: Explain the Troubleshooting Methodology4; Troubleshooting Methodology | IT Support and Help Desk | CompTIA12
Question #13
A user is attempting to print a document to a wireless printer and receives an error stating the operation could not be completed.
Which of the following should the user do to correct this issue?
- A . Ensure both devices are connected to the LAN.
- B . Enable task scheduling.
- C . Reset the proxy settings to their default values.
- D . Review the fault tolerance configurations.
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
A wireless printer is a device that can print documents or images from a computer or mobile device without using a cable connection. To use a wireless printer, both the printer and the device that sends the print job must be connected to the same local area network (LAN), either wirelessly or through an Ethernet cable. If the user receives an error message when trying to print to a wireless printer, one of the possible solutions is to ensure both devices are connected to the LAN. The user can check the network settings on both devices and make sure they have valid IP addresses and network connectivity1314.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 3: IT Infrastructure4; How to Troubleshoot WiFi Printer Problems – Lifewire
A
Explanation:
A wireless printer is a device that can print documents or images from a computer or mobile device without using a cable connection. To use a wireless printer, both the printer and the device that sends the print job must be connected to the same local area network (LAN), either wirelessly or through an Ethernet cable. If the user receives an error message when trying to print to a wireless printer, one of the possible solutions is to ensure both devices are connected to the LAN. The user can check the network settings on both devices and make sure they have valid IP addresses and network connectivity1314.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 3: IT Infrastructure4; How to Troubleshoot WiFi Printer Problems – Lifewire
Question #14
Which of the following relational database constructs is used to ensure valid values are entered for a column?
- A . Schema
- B . Permissions
- C . Constraint
- D . Column
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A constraint is a rule or a restriction that is applied to a column or a table in a relational database to ensure that only valid values are entered. Constraints help to maintain the integrity, accuracy, and consistency of the data. For example, a constraint can be used to specify that a column must not contain null values, or that a column must contain unique values, or that a column must match a value in another table12.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 5: Database Fundamentals3; Constraints in Relational Database Model – Online Tutorials Library
C
Explanation:
A constraint is a rule or a restriction that is applied to a column or a table in a relational database to ensure that only valid values are entered. Constraints help to maintain the integrity, accuracy, and consistency of the data. For example, a constraint can be used to specify that a column must not contain null values, or that a column must contain unique values, or that a column must match a value in another table12.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 5: Database Fundamentals3; Constraints in Relational Database Model – Online Tutorials Library
Question #15
A user is buying a laptop. The user will have a lot of personal and confidential information on the laptop. The user wants to ensure data cannot be accessed by anyone, even if the laptop is stolen.
Which of the following should be set up to accomplish this?
- A . Encryption
- B . Compression
- C . Permissions
- D . Auditing
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Encryption is the process of transforming data into an unreadable format using a secret key or algorithm. Encryption helps to protect the confidentiality and privacy of data, especially when it is stored on a device or transmitted over a network. Encryption can prevent unauthorized access to data by anyone who does not have the correct key or algorithm to decrypt it. For example, a user can encrypt the data on their laptop using a password or a biometric authentication method, so that even if the laptop is stolen, the data cannot be accessed by the thief56.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 6: Security3; What is Encryption? – Definition from Techopedia
A
Explanation:
Encryption is the process of transforming data into an unreadable format using a secret key or algorithm. Encryption helps to protect the confidentiality and privacy of data, especially when it is stored on a device or transmitted over a network. Encryption can prevent unauthorized access to data by anyone who does not have the correct key or algorithm to decrypt it. For example, a user can encrypt the data on their laptop using a password or a biometric authentication method, so that even if the laptop is stolen, the data cannot be accessed by the thief56.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 6: Security3; What is Encryption? – Definition from Techopedia
Question #16
A systems administrator uses a program that interacts directly with hardware to manage storage, network, and virtual machines. This program is an example of:
- A . a storage area network.
- B . an embedded OS.
- C . network attached storage.
- D . a Type 1 hypervisor.
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
A hypervisor is a software program that allows multiple operating systems (OS) to run on the same physical hardware as virtual machines (VMs). A hypervisor can be classified into two types: Type 1 and Type 2. A Type 1 hypervisor interacts directly with the hardware and does not need an underlying OS to function. A Type 1 hypervisor is also known as a bare-metal hypervisor or a native hypervisor. A Type 1 hypervisor can manage storage, network, and VMs more efficiently and securely than a Type 2 hypervisor89.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 3: IT Infrastructure3; What is Hypervisor? – Definition from Techopedia10
D
Explanation:
A hypervisor is a software program that allows multiple operating systems (OS) to run on the same physical hardware as virtual machines (VMs). A hypervisor can be classified into two types: Type 1 and Type 2. A Type 1 hypervisor interacts directly with the hardware and does not need an underlying OS to function. A Type 1 hypervisor is also known as a bare-metal hypervisor or a native hypervisor. A Type 1 hypervisor can manage storage, network, and VMs more efficiently and securely than a Type 2 hypervisor89.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 3: IT Infrastructure3; What is Hypervisor? – Definition from Techopedia10
Question #17
Which of the following is a compiled language?
- A . Perl
- B . JScript
- C . Java
- D . PowerShell
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A compiled language is a programming language that requires its source code to be converted into machine code before it can be executed by the CPU. A compiled language uses a compiler, which is a program that translates the source code into an executable file that contains machine code. A compiled language typically runs faster and more efficiently than an interpreted language, which does not need to be compiled before execution. Java is an example of a compiled language that can run on different platforms using the Java Virtual Machine (JVM), which interprets the machine code for the specific hardware1112.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 4: Software Development3; What is Compiled Language? – Definition from Techopedia13
C
Explanation:
A compiled language is a programming language that requires its source code to be converted into machine code before it can be executed by the CPU. A compiled language uses a compiler, which is a program that translates the source code into an executable file that contains machine code. A compiled language typically runs faster and more efficiently than an interpreted language, which does not need to be compiled before execution. Java is an example of a compiled language that can run on different platforms using the Java Virtual Machine (JVM), which interprets the machine code for the specific hardware1112.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 4: Software Development3; What is Compiled Language? – Definition from Techopedia13
Question #18
Which of the following actions is the FINAL step in the standard troubleshooting methodology?
- A . Document the solution and cause.
- B . Create a new theory of cause.
- C . Research the problem online.
- D . Implement preventive measures.
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The final step in the standard troubleshooting methodology is to document the solution and cause of the problem. This step involves recording the details of the problem, the steps taken to resolve it, the outcome of the solution, and any preventive measures implemented to avoid future occurrences. Documenting the solution and cause can help to create a knowledge base for future reference, improve communication among IT professionals, and facilitate continuous improvement12.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 7: Explain the Troubleshooting Methodology3; Troubleshooting Methodology | IT Support and Help Desk | CompTIA4
A
Explanation:
The final step in the standard troubleshooting methodology is to document the solution and cause of the problem. This step involves recording the details of the problem, the steps taken to resolve it, the outcome of the solution, and any preventive measures implemented to avoid future occurrences. Documenting the solution and cause can help to create a knowledge base for future reference, improve communication among IT professionals, and facilitate continuous improvement12.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 7: Explain the Troubleshooting Methodology3; Troubleshooting Methodology | IT Support and Help Desk | CompTIA4
Question #19
Which of the following is a value that uniquely identifies a database record?
- A . Foreign key
- B . Public key
- C . Primary key
- D . Private key
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A primary key is a value that uniquely identifies a database record or a row in a table. A primary key can be a single column or a combination of columns that have unique values for each record. A primary key ensures that each record can be distinguished from others and prevents duplicate data. For example, in a database that stores information about employees, the employee ID column can be used as a primary key for each employee record56.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 5: Database Fundamentals3; What is Primary Key? – Definition from Techopedia7
C
Explanation:
A primary key is a value that uniquely identifies a database record or a row in a table. A primary key can be a single column or a combination of columns that have unique values for each record. A primary key ensures that each record can be distinguished from others and prevents duplicate data. For example, in a database that stores information about employees, the employee ID column can be used as a primary key for each employee record56.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 5: Database Fundamentals3; What is Primary Key? – Definition from Techopedia7
Question #20
A systems administrator wants to return results for a time range within a database.
Which of the following commands should the administrator use?
- A . SELECT
- B . INSERT
- C . DELETE
- D . UPDATE
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
A SELECT command is a SQL (Structured Query Language) statement that is used to return results for a time range within a database. A SELECT command can specify the columns and rows to be retrieved from one or more tables based on certain criteria or conditions. A SELECT command can also use functions or operators to manipulate or filter the data. For example, a SELECT command can use the BETWEEN operator to specify a time range for a date column89.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 5: Database Fundamentals3; SQL SELECT Statement – W3Schools10
A
Explanation:
A SELECT command is a SQL (Structured Query Language) statement that is used to return results for a time range within a database. A SELECT command can specify the columns and rows to be retrieved from one or more tables based on certain criteria or conditions. A SELECT command can also use functions or operators to manipulate or filter the data. For example, a SELECT command can use the BETWEEN operator to specify a time range for a date column89.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 5: Database Fundamentals3; SQL SELECT Statement – W3Schools10
Question #21
Which of the following statements BEST describes binary?
- A . A notational system used to represent an “on” or “off” state
- B . A notational system used to represent media access control
- C . A notational system used to represent Internet protocol addressing
- D . A notational system used to represent a storage unit of measurement
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Binary is a notational system used to represent an “on” or “off” state in digital devices or systems. Binary uses only two symbols: 0 (off) and 1 (on). Binary is also known as base 2 notation, because each symbol represents a power of 2. Binary is the fundamental building block of all computer operations and data storage, as it can encode any type of information using sequences of bits (binary digits)1112.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 2: Computing Basics3; What is Binary? – Definition from Techopedia
A
Explanation:
Binary is a notational system used to represent an “on” or “off” state in digital devices or systems. Binary uses only two symbols: 0 (off) and 1 (on). Binary is also known as base 2 notation, because each symbol represents a power of 2. Binary is the fundamental building block of all computer operations and data storage, as it can encode any type of information using sequences of bits (binary digits)1112.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 2: Computing Basics3; What is Binary? – Definition from Techopedia
Question #22
Joe, a developer, is writing a program in which he needs to store a number that changes over the duration of the program’s run.
Which of the following would Joe MOST likely use to accomplish this?
- A . Loop
- B . Variable
- C . Constant
- D . Function
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A variable is a named memory location that can store a number or any other type of data that changes over the duration of the program’s run. A variable can be assigned a value, modified, or used in calculations or operations. A variable is different from a constant, which is a fixed value that does not change. A variable is also different from a loop, which is a control structure that repeats a block of code until a condition is met. A variable is also different from a function, which is a named block of code that performs a specific task and can be reused12.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 4: Software Development3; What is Variable? – Definition from Techopedia
B
Explanation:
A variable is a named memory location that can store a number or any other type of data that changes over the duration of the program’s run. A variable can be assigned a value, modified, or used in calculations or operations. A variable is different from a constant, which is a fixed value that does not change. A variable is also different from a loop, which is a control structure that repeats a block of code until a condition is met. A variable is also different from a function, which is a named block of code that performs a specific task and can be reused12.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 4: Software Development3; What is Variable? – Definition from Techopedia
Question #23
An end user’s computer has been failing to open its word processing software. An IT technician successfully solves the problem.
Which of the following best describes the technician’s NEXT step?
- A . Restart the computer.
- B . Contact other users.
- C . Disconnect the peripherals.
- D . Document the findings.
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The final step in the standard troubleshooting methodology is to document the findings of the problem and the solution. This step involves recording the details of the problem, the steps taken to resolve it, the outcome of the solution, and any preventive measures implemented to avoid future occurrences. Documenting the findings can help to create a knowledge base for future reference, improve communication among IT professionals, and facilitate continuous improvement56.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 7: Explain the Troubleshooting Methodology3; Troubleshooting Methodology | IT Support and Help Desk | CompTIA7
D
Explanation:
The final step in the standard troubleshooting methodology is to document the findings of the problem and the solution. This step involves recording the details of the problem, the steps taken to resolve it, the outcome of the solution, and any preventive measures implemented to avoid future occurrences. Documenting the findings can help to create a knowledge base for future reference, improve communication among IT professionals, and facilitate continuous improvement56.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 7: Explain the Troubleshooting Methodology3; Troubleshooting Methodology | IT Support and Help Desk | CompTIA7
Question #24
A regulation requires new applicants to provide a scan of their retinas in case of any future legal questions regarding who applied for the position.
Which of the following concepts is this an example of?
- A . Non-repudiation
- B . Authentication
- C . Integrity
- D . Accounting
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Non-repudiation is a security concept that refers to the ability to prove the origin and authenticity of an action or communication, such as an email or a document. Non-repudiation prevents someone from denying their involvement or responsibility for something they have done or sent. Non-repudiation can be achieved by using methods such as digital signatures, encryption, timestamps, or biometric data. For example, scanning the retinas of new applicants can provide non-repudiation in case of any future legal questions regarding who applied for the position89.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 6: Security3; What is Non-Repudiation? –
Definition from Techopedia10
A
Explanation:
Non-repudiation is a security concept that refers to the ability to prove the origin and authenticity of an action or communication, such as an email or a document. Non-repudiation prevents someone from denying their involvement or responsibility for something they have done or sent. Non-repudiation can be achieved by using methods such as digital signatures, encryption, timestamps, or biometric data. For example, scanning the retinas of new applicants can provide non-repudiation in case of any future legal questions regarding who applied for the position89.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 6: Security3; What is Non-Repudiation? –
Definition from Techopedia10
Question #25
Which of the following is an advantage of installing an application to the cloud?
- A . Data is not stored locally.
- B . Support is not required.
- C . Service is not required.
- D . Internet access is not required.
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
An advantage of installing an application to the cloud is that data is not stored locally on the user’s device or computer. This means that data can be accessed from anywhere with an internet connection, without taking up space on the device or computer. Data stored in the cloud can also be more secure and reliable than data stored locally, as it can be protected by encryption, backup, and redundancy measures provided by the cloud service provider1112.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 5: Database Fundamentals3; What are Cloud Applications? – Definition from Techopedia13
A
Explanation:
An advantage of installing an application to the cloud is that data is not stored locally on the user’s device or computer. This means that data can be accessed from anywhere with an internet connection, without taking up space on the device or computer. Data stored in the cloud can also be more secure and reliable than data stored locally, as it can be protected by encryption, backup, and redundancy measures provided by the cloud service provider1112.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 5: Database Fundamentals3; What are Cloud Applications? – Definition from Techopedia13
Question #26
A small company wants to set up a server that is accessible from the company network as well as the Internet.
Which of the following is MOST important to determine before allowing employees to access the server remotely?
- A . The quality of the computer used to connect
- B . A security method of allowing connections
- C . The employees’ home ISP speeds
- D . The geographical location of the employees
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
The most important factor to determine before allowing employees to access the server remotely is a security method of allowing connections. This means that the company needs to implement a way of verifying the identity and authorization of the employees who want to connect to the server from outside the company network or the internet. A security method of allowing connections can include using passwords, tokens, certificates, VPNs, firewalls, or encryption. A security method of allowing connections can prevent unauthorized access, data breaches, malware infections, or other cyberattacks on the server1415.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 6: Security3; Remote Access Security Best Practices – Cisco Meraki
B
Explanation:
The most important factor to determine before allowing employees to access the server remotely is a security method of allowing connections. This means that the company needs to implement a way of verifying the identity and authorization of the employees who want to connect to the server from outside the company network or the internet. A security method of allowing connections can include using passwords, tokens, certificates, VPNs, firewalls, or encryption. A security method of allowing connections can prevent unauthorized access, data breaches, malware infections, or other cyberattacks on the server1415.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 6: Security3; Remote Access Security Best Practices – Cisco Meraki
Question #27
A program needs to choose apples, oranges, or bananas based on an input.
Which of the following programming constructs is BEST to use?
- A . Variable
- B . If
- C . Datatype
- D . Comment
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
An if statement is a programming construct that is best to use when a program needs to choose among different options based on an input. An if statement evaluates a condition and executes a block of code if the condition is true. An if statement can also have an else clause that executes a different block of code if the condition is false. An if statement can also have multiple else-if clauses that check for additional conditions.
For example, a program that chooses apples, oranges, or bananas based on an input could use an if statement like this:
B
Explanation:
An if statement is a programming construct that is best to use when a program needs to choose among different options based on an input. An if statement evaluates a condition and executes a block of code if the condition is true. An if statement can also have an else clause that executes a different block of code if the condition is false. An if statement can also have multiple else-if clauses that check for additional conditions.
For example, a program that chooses apples, oranges, or bananas based on an input could use an if statement like this:
A variable is a named memory location that can store a value, not a programming construct that can choose among options. A datatype is a classification of data that defines the possible values and operations for that data, not a programming construct that can choose among options. A comment is a remark or explanation in the source code that is ignored by the compiler or interpreter, not a programming construct that can choose among options.
Question #28
A UPS provides protection against:
- A . denial of service
- B . replay attack.
- C . power outages.
- D . wiretapping.
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A UPS (uninterruptible power supply) provides protection against power outages by providing backup power to connected devices in case of a power failure. A UPS typically consists of a battery, an inverter, and a surge protector. A UPS can prevent data loss, hardware damage, or downtime caused by sudden loss of electricity. A UPS can also protect against power surges, spikes, or fluctuations that can harm electronic devices.
A denial of service (DoS) is a cyberattack that attempts to disrupt the normal functioning of a network or system by overwhelming it with traffic or requests. A UPS does not provide protection against DoS attacks, as they target the network layer, not the physical layer. A replay attack is a cyberattack that involves intercepting and retransmitting data to impersonate or deceive another party. A UPS does not provide protection against replay attacks, as they target the application layer, not the physical layer. Wiretapping is the act of secretly monitoring or recording the communication or data transmission of another party. A UPS does not provide protection against wiretapping, as it does not encrypt or secure the data.
C
Explanation:
A UPS (uninterruptible power supply) provides protection against power outages by providing backup power to connected devices in case of a power failure. A UPS typically consists of a battery, an inverter, and a surge protector. A UPS can prevent data loss, hardware damage, or downtime caused by sudden loss of electricity. A UPS can also protect against power surges, spikes, or fluctuations that can harm electronic devices.
A denial of service (DoS) is a cyberattack that attempts to disrupt the normal functioning of a network or system by overwhelming it with traffic or requests. A UPS does not provide protection against DoS attacks, as they target the network layer, not the physical layer. A replay attack is a cyberattack that involves intercepting and retransmitting data to impersonate or deceive another party. A UPS does not provide protection against replay attacks, as they target the application layer, not the physical layer. Wiretapping is the act of secretly monitoring or recording the communication or data transmission of another party. A UPS does not provide protection against wiretapping, as it does not encrypt or secure the data.
Question #29
A company executive wants to view company training videos from a DVD.
Which of the following components would accomplish this task?
- A . Optical drive
- B . Hard disk drive
- C . Solid state drive
- D . Flash drive
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
An optical drive is a component that can accomplish the task of viewing company training videos from a DVD. An optical drive is a device that can read and write data from optical discs, such as CDs, DVDs, or Blu-ray discs. An optical drive uses a laser beam to access the data stored on the disc. An optical drive can play video or audio files from optical discs, as well as install software or store data. A hard disk drive (HDD) is a component that can store large amounts of data on magnetic platters, but it cannot read or write data from optical discs. A solid state drive (SSD) is a component that can store data on flash memory chips, but it cannot read or write data from optical discs. A flash drive is a component that can store data on flash memory chips and connect to a USB port, but it cannot read or write data from optical discs.
A
Explanation:
An optical drive is a component that can accomplish the task of viewing company training videos from a DVD. An optical drive is a device that can read and write data from optical discs, such as CDs, DVDs, or Blu-ray discs. An optical drive uses a laser beam to access the data stored on the disc. An optical drive can play video or audio files from optical discs, as well as install software or store data. A hard disk drive (HDD) is a component that can store large amounts of data on magnetic platters, but it cannot read or write data from optical discs. A solid state drive (SSD) is a component that can store data on flash memory chips, but it cannot read or write data from optical discs. A flash drive is a component that can store data on flash memory chips and connect to a USB port, but it cannot read or write data from optical discs.
Question #30
A technician is troubleshooting a problem. The technician tests the theory and determines the theory is
confirmed.
Which of the following should be the technician’s NEXT step?
- A . Implement the solution.
- B . Document lessons learned.
- C . Establish a plan of action.
- D . Verify full system functionality.
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The technician’s next step after testing the theory and determining the theory is confirmed is to establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects. This step involves preparing a specific method to implement the solution and considering how the solution might affect other components or users. The technician should also test the plan in an isolated environment before applying it to the actual system.
Implementing the solution is not the next step after testing the theory and determining the theory is confirmed, as it requires establishing a plan of action first. Documenting lessons learned is not the next step after testing the theory and determining the theory is confirmed, as it comes after verifying full system functionality and implementing preventive measures. Verifying full system functionality is not the next step after testing the theory and determining the theory is confirmed, as it comes after implementing the solution.
C
Explanation:
The technician’s next step after testing the theory and determining the theory is confirmed is to establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects. This step involves preparing a specific method to implement the solution and considering how the solution might affect other components or users. The technician should also test the plan in an isolated environment before applying it to the actual system.
Implementing the solution is not the next step after testing the theory and determining the theory is confirmed, as it requires establishing a plan of action first. Documenting lessons learned is not the next step after testing the theory and determining the theory is confirmed, as it comes after verifying full system functionality and implementing preventive measures. Verifying full system functionality is not the next step after testing the theory and determining the theory is confirmed, as it comes after implementing the solution.
Question #31
Given the following pseudocode:
If the Breakfast program ran on Sunday, which of the following would be the output?
- A . Oatmeal
- B . Bacon and eggs
- C . Waffles
- D . Pancakes
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The output of the Breakfast program if it ran on Sunday would be pancakes. The program uses an if-else-if-else statement to choose among different breakfast options based on the day of the week input. The program first checks if the day input is equal to “Saturday”. If this condition is true, it prints “Waffles” and ends. If this condition is false, it checks if the day input is equal to “Sunday”. If this condition is true, it prints “Pancakes” and ends. If this condition is false, it prints “Oatmeal” and ends. Since the day input is “Sunday”, the second condition is true, and the program prints “Pancakes”.
D
Explanation:
The output of the Breakfast program if it ran on Sunday would be pancakes. The program uses an if-else-if-else statement to choose among different breakfast options based on the day of the week input. The program first checks if the day input is equal to “Saturday”. If this condition is true, it prints “Waffles” and ends. If this condition is false, it checks if the day input is equal to “Sunday”. If this condition is true, it prints “Pancakes” and ends. If this condition is false, it prints “Oatmeal” and ends. Since the day input is “Sunday”, the second condition is true, and the program prints “Pancakes”.
Question #32
A desktop administrator just connected a printer to a workstation, but the workstation does not recognize the printer.
Which of the following does the workstation MOST likely need for the printer to function?
- A . Permission
- B . Ink cartridge
- C . USB cable
- D . Driver
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
A driver is a software component that enables a device, such as a printer, to communicate with the operating system of a computer. Without a proper driver, the workstation will not be able to recognize or use the printer. Therefore, the workstation most likely needs a driver for the printer to function. The other options are not relevant to the problem of device recognition.
D
Explanation:
A driver is a software component that enables a device, such as a printer, to communicate with the operating system of a computer. Without a proper driver, the workstation will not be able to recognize or use the printer. Therefore, the workstation most likely needs a driver for the printer to function. The other options are not relevant to the problem of device recognition.
Question #33
Which of the following BEST describes a kilobyte?
- A . A kilobyte is a measurement of storage (e.g., 100KB).
- B . A kilobyte is a measurement of throughput (e.g.,100Kbps).
- C . A kilobyte is a measurement of power (e.g., 100KW).
- D . A kilobyte is a measurement of processor speed (e.g., 2.4KHz).
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
A kilobyte is a unit of digital information that equals 1,024 bytes. A byte is the smallest unit of data that can be stored or processed by a computer. A kilobyte can store a small amount of text, such as a few sentences or a paragraph. Storage devices, such as hard disks and flash drives, use kilobytes and other larger units, such as megabytes and gigabytes, to measure their capacity and performance.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 38.
A
Explanation:
A kilobyte is a unit of digital information that equals 1,024 bytes. A byte is the smallest unit of data that can be stored or processed by a computer. A kilobyte can store a small amount of text, such as a few sentences or a paragraph. Storage devices, such as hard disks and flash drives, use kilobytes and other larger units, such as megabytes and gigabytes, to measure their capacity and performance.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 38.
Question #34
Which of the following security concerns is a threat to confidentiality?
- A . Replay attack
- B . Denial of service
- C . Service outage
- D . Dumpster diving
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Dumpster diving is a technique used by attackers to obtain sensitive information from discarded documents, such as passwords, account numbers, or personal details. This information can be used to breach the confidentiality of an organization or an individual. Confidentiality is the principle of protecting information from unauthorized access or disclosure. To prevent dumpster diving, documents containing confidential information should be shredded or securely disposed of.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 206.
D
Explanation:
Dumpster diving is a technique used by attackers to obtain sensitive information from discarded documents, such as passwords, account numbers, or personal details. This information can be used to breach the confidentiality of an organization or an individual. Confidentiality is the principle of protecting information from unauthorized access or disclosure. To prevent dumpster diving, documents containing confidential information should be shredded or securely disposed of.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 206.
Question #35
Which of the following software license models allows a developer to modify the original code and release its own version of the application?
- A . Proprietary software
- B . Commercial software
- C . Open-source software
- D . Cross-platform software
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Open source software is software that allows anyone to access, modify, and distribute its source code, which is the human-readable instructions that make up the software. Open source software encourages collaboration and innovation among developers and users. Examples of open source software include Linux, Firefox, and WordPress. Other types of software license models, such as proprietary and commercial software, restrict the access and modification of the source code.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 122.
C
Explanation:
Open source software is software that allows anyone to access, modify, and distribute its source code, which is the human-readable instructions that make up the software. Open source software encourages collaboration and innovation among developers and users. Examples of open source software include Linux, Firefox, and WordPress. Other types of software license models, such as proprietary and commercial software, restrict the access and modification of the source code.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 122.
Question #36
Which of the following are the basic computing operations?
- A . Input, process, output, and feedback
- B . Input, output, storage, and feedback
- C . Input, process, and output
- D . Input, process, output, and storage
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Input, process, output, and storage are the basic computing operations that describe how a computer system works. Input is the data or instructions that are entered into the computer system by the user or another device. Process is the manipulation or transformation of the input data by the computer system according to a set of rules or algorithms. Output is the result or information that is displayed or sent by the computer system to the user or another device. Storage is the retention or preservation of the input, output, or intermediate data by the computer system for future use.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 28.
D
Explanation:
Input, process, output, and storage are the basic computing operations that describe how a computer system works. Input is the data or instructions that are entered into the computer system by the user or another device. Process is the manipulation or transformation of the input data by the computer system according to a set of rules or algorithms. Output is the result or information that is displayed or sent by the computer system to the user or another device. Storage is the retention or preservation of the input, output, or intermediate data by the computer system for future use.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 28.
Question #37
Which of the following would work BEST stored as a flat file rather than stored in a database?
- A . Contact list
- B . Movie theater locations
- C . Directions to doctor’s office
- D . Store inventory
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Directions to doctor’s office would work best stored as a flat file rather than stored in a database. A flat file is a simple text file that contains one record per line and has a fixed structure or format. A flat file is suitable for storing simple or static data that does not require frequent updates or complex queries. A database is a collection of organized data that can be accessed, manipulated, and updated using a database management system (DBMS). A database is suitable for storing complex or dynamic data that requires frequent updates or complex queries.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), pages 142-143.
C
Explanation:
Directions to doctor’s office would work best stored as a flat file rather than stored in a database. A flat file is a simple text file that contains one record per line and has a fixed structure or format. A flat file is suitable for storing simple or static data that does not require frequent updates or complex queries. A database is a collection of organized data that can be accessed, manipulated, and updated using a database management system (DBMS). A database is suitable for storing complex or dynamic data that requires frequent updates or complex queries.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), pages 142-143.
Question #38
An administrator grants permission for a user to access data in a database.
Which of the following actions was performed?
- A . Data correlation
- B . Data manipulation
- C . Data gathering
- D . Data definition
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Data definition is the process of creating, modifying, or deleting the structure and objects of a database, such as tables, fields, indexes, and views. Data definition is performed using data definition language (DDL), which is a subset of SQL commands. An administrator can use DDL to grant or revoke permissions for a user to access data in a database.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 144.
D
Explanation:
Data definition is the process of creating, modifying, or deleting the structure and objects of a database, such as tables, fields, indexes, and views. Data definition is performed using data definition language (DDL), which is a subset of SQL commands. An administrator can use DDL to grant or revoke permissions for a user to access data in a database.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 144.
Question #39
An employee is asked to generate a report on a student information system. The employee uses spreadsheet software and connects to a remote database to pull data for the report.
Which of the following types of application architectures did the employee use?
- A . Standalone application
- B . Client-server application
- C . Web application
- D . Cloud application
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A client-server application is an application that runs on a client device and communicates with a server device over a network. The client device requests data or services from the server device, and the server device responds to the requests. A spreadsheet software that connects to a remote database is an example of a client-server application. The spreadsheet software acts as the client, and the database acts as the server.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 128.
B
Explanation:
A client-server application is an application that runs on a client device and communicates with a server device over a network. The client device requests data or services from the server device, and the server device responds to the requests. A spreadsheet software that connects to a remote database is an example of a client-server application. The spreadsheet software acts as the client, and the database acts as the server.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 128.
Question #40
Ann, a user, is experiencing difficulty getting her IP-based security camera to function at her house after a rain storm that caused a power interruption. The camera has an LED light indicating it has power.
Which of the following is MOST likely the problem?
- A . The power interruption caused the camera to malfunction.
- B . Ann has a compatibility problem with the camera.
- C . A firmware update needs to be applied to the camera.
- D . Ann’s Internet connection and wireless router are still down.
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Ann’s IP-based security camera requires an Internet connection and a wireless router to function properly. The camera has an LED light indicating it has power, which means it is not malfunctioning due to the power interruption. However, the power interruption may have affected Ann’s Internet connection and wireless router, which are still down. This would prevent the camera from communicating with the network and the cloud service that stores the video footage.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 178.
D
Explanation:
Ann’s IP-based security camera requires an Internet connection and a wireless router to function properly. The camera has an LED light indicating it has power, which means it is not malfunctioning due to the power interruption. However, the power interruption may have affected Ann’s Internet connection and wireless router, which are still down. This would prevent the camera from communicating with the network and the cloud service that stores the video footage.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 178.
Question #41
A programmer needs to store output in a place that can be accessed as quickly as possible. The data does not need to remain persistent.
Which of the following is the BEST option for storing the data?
- A . Flat file
- B . Memory
- C . Relational database
- D . Solid state drive
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Memory is the component of a computer system that stores data temporarily for fast access by the processor. Memory does not need to remain persistent, which means it does not retain data when the power is turned off. A programmer can use memory to store output in a place that can be accessed as quickly as possible by the processor. Memory is also known as RAM (random access memory).
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 36.
B
Explanation:
Memory is the component of a computer system that stores data temporarily for fast access by the processor. Memory does not need to remain persistent, which means it does not retain data when the power is turned off. A programmer can use memory to store output in a place that can be accessed as quickly as possible by the processor. Memory is also known as RAM (random access memory).
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 36.
Question #42
Which of the following intellectual property concepts BEST represents a legally protected slogan of a business?
- A . Contract
- B . Patent
- C . Copyright
- D . Trademark
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
A trademark is a type of intellectual property that protects a word, phrase, symbol, or design that identifies and distinguishes the source of goods or services of one party from those of others. A slogan of a business is an example of a trademark that can be legally protected from unauthorized use by other parties. A trademark can be registered with the appropriate authority to obtain exclusive rights and benefits.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 211.
D
Explanation:
A trademark is a type of intellectual property that protects a word, phrase, symbol, or design that identifies and distinguishes the source of goods or services of one party from those of others. A slogan of a business is an example of a trademark that can be legally protected from unauthorized use by other parties. A trademark can be registered with the appropriate authority to obtain exclusive rights and benefits.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 211.
Question #43
Which of the following is a wireless communication that requires devices to be within 6in of each other to transfer information?
- A . Infrared
- B . NFC
- C . Bluetooth
- D . WiFi
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
NFC stands for near field communication, which is a wireless communication technology that allows devices to exchange data or perform transactions when they are within a few centimeters of each other. NFC uses radio frequency identification (RFID) to create a short-range wireless connection. NFC is commonly used for contactless payments, smart cards, and digital wallets.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 174.
B
Explanation:
NFC stands for near field communication, which is a wireless communication technology that allows devices to exchange data or perform transactions when they are within a few centimeters of each other. NFC uses radio frequency identification (RFID) to create a short-range wireless connection. NFC is commonly used for contactless payments, smart cards, and digital wallets.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 174.
Question #44
The IT department has established a new password policy for employees.
Specifically, the policy reads:
Passwords must not contain common dictionary words
Passwords must contain at least one special character.
Passwords must be different from the las six passwords used.
Passwords must use at least one capital letter or number.
Which of the following practices are being employed? (Select TWO).
- A . Password lockout
- B . Password complexity
- C . Password expiration
- D . Passwords history
- E . Password length
- F . Password age
Correct Answer: B, D
B, D
Explanation:
Password complexity and password history are two practices that are being employed by the IT department to establish a new password policy for employees. Password complexity is the requirement that passwords must contain a combination of different types of characters, such as letters, numbers, and symbols. Password complexity makes passwords harder to guess or crack by attackers. Password history is the record of the previous passwords used by a user. Password history prevents users from reusing the same passwords over and over again, which reduces the risk of compromise.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 208.
B, D
Explanation:
Password complexity and password history are two practices that are being employed by the IT department to establish a new password policy for employees. Password complexity is the requirement that passwords must contain a combination of different types of characters, such as letters, numbers, and symbols. Password complexity makes passwords harder to guess or crack by attackers. Password history is the record of the previous passwords used by a user. Password history prevents users from reusing the same passwords over and over again, which reduces the risk of compromise.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 208.
Question #45
Which of the following would MOST likely prevent malware sent as compromised file via email from infecting a person’s computer?
- A . Email previewing
- B . Patching
- C . Clear browsing cache
- D . Kill process
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Patching would be the most likely way to prevent malware sent as a compromised file via email from infecting a person’s computer. Patching is the process of applying updates or fixes to software or hardware to improve performance, security, or functionality. Patching can help prevent malware infections by closing the vulnerabilities or flaws that malware exploits to infect systems. Users should regularly patch their operating systems, applications, and antivirus software to protect their computers from malware attacks.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 202.
B
Explanation:
Patching would be the most likely way to prevent malware sent as a compromised file via email from infecting a person’s computer. Patching is the process of applying updates or fixes to software or hardware to improve performance, security, or functionality. Patching can help prevent malware infections by closing the vulnerabilities or flaws that malware exploits to infect systems. Users should regularly patch their operating systems, applications, and antivirus software to protect their computers from malware attacks.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 202.
Question #46
A user wants to use a laptop outside the house and still remain connected to the Internet.
Which of the following would be the BEST choice to accomplish this task?
- A . Thunderbolt cable
- B . Bluetooth module
- C . Infrared port
- D . WLAN card
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
A WLAN card would be the best choice for a user who wants to use a laptop outside the house and still remain connected to the Internet. A WLAN card stands for wireless local area network card, which is a device that allows a laptop to connect to a wireless network using radio waves. A WLAN card can enable a laptop to access the Internet through public or private wireless hotspots, such as cafes, libraries, airports, or homes.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 170.
D
Explanation:
A WLAN card would be the best choice for a user who wants to use a laptop outside the house and still remain connected to the Internet. A WLAN card stands for wireless local area network card, which is a device that allows a laptop to connect to a wireless network using radio waves. A WLAN card can enable a laptop to access the Internet through public or private wireless hotspots, such as cafes, libraries, airports, or homes.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 170.
Question #47
Joe, a user, finds out his password for a social media site has been compromised. Joe tells a friend that his email and banking accounts are probably also compromised.
Which of the following has Joe MOST likely performed?
- A . Password reuse
- B . Snooping
- C . Social engineering
- D . Phishing
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Password reuse is the practice of using the same password for multiple accounts or services. Password reuse is a bad security habit that can lead to compromise of multiple accounts if one of them is breached by an attacker. Joe has most likely performed password reuse if he thinks his email and banking accounts are also compromised after his password for a social media site was compromised. Joe should use different passwords for different accounts and change them regularly to prevent password reuse.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 208.
A
Explanation:
Password reuse is the practice of using the same password for multiple accounts or services. Password reuse is a bad security habit that can lead to compromise of multiple accounts if one of them is breached by an attacker. Joe has most likely performed password reuse if he thinks his email and banking accounts are also compromised after his password for a social media site was compromised. Joe should use different passwords for different accounts and change them regularly to prevent password reuse.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 208.
Question #48
A technician is installing a new wireless network and wants to secure the wireless network to prevent
unauthorized access.
Which of the following protocols would be the MOST secure?
- A . WPA
- B . SSID
- C . WEP
- D . WPA2
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
WPA2 is the most secure protocol for securing a wireless network and preventing unauthorized access. WPA2 stands for Wi-Fi Protected Access 2, which is an encryption standard that provides strong security and privacy for wireless communications. WPA2 uses AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) to encrypt data and CCMP (Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol) to authenticate data. WPA2 also supports PSK (Pre-Shared Key) and EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol) methods for verifying the identity of users or devices that connect to the wireless network.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 172.
D
Explanation:
WPA2 is the most secure protocol for securing a wireless network and preventing unauthorized access. WPA2 stands for Wi-Fi Protected Access 2, which is an encryption standard that provides strong security and privacy for wireless communications. WPA2 uses AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) to encrypt data and CCMP (Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol) to authenticate data. WPA2 also supports PSK (Pre-Shared Key) and EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol) methods for verifying the identity of users or devices that connect to the wireless network.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 172.
Question #49
Which of the following network protocols will MOST likely be used when sending and receiving Internet email? (Select TWO.)
- A . SMTP
- B . POP3
- C . SNMP
- D . DHCP
- E . ICMP
- F . SFTP
Correct Answer: A, B
A, B
Explanation:
SMTP and POP3 are the most likely network protocols that will be used when sending and receiving Internet email. SMTP stands for Simple Mail Transfer Protocol, which is a protocol that enables the transmission of email messages from a client to a server or from one server to another. SMTP is used to send outgoing email messages. POP3 stands for Post Office Protocol version 3, which is a protocol that enables the retrieval of email messages from a server to a client. POP3 is used to download incoming email messages.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 166.
A, B
Explanation:
SMTP and POP3 are the most likely network protocols that will be used when sending and receiving Internet email. SMTP stands for Simple Mail Transfer Protocol, which is a protocol that enables the transmission of email messages from a client to a server or from one server to another. SMTP is used to send outgoing email messages. POP3 stands for Post Office Protocol version 3, which is a protocol that enables the retrieval of email messages from a server to a client. POP3 is used to download incoming email messages.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 166.
Question #50
A database administrator finds that a table is not needed in a relational database.
Which of the following commands is used to completely remove the table and its data?
- A . UPDATE
- B . DELETE
- C . ALTER
- D . DROP
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
DROP is the command that is used to completely remove a table and its data from a relational database. DROP is a SQL (Structured Query Language) statement that deletes the definition and contents of a database object, such as a table, index, or view. DROP cannot be undone, so it should be used with caution. For example, the statement DROP TABLE Customers; will delete the table named Customers and all its data from the database.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 144.
D
Explanation:
DROP is the command that is used to completely remove a table and its data from a relational database. DROP is a SQL (Structured Query Language) statement that deletes the definition and contents of a database object, such as a table, index, or view. DROP cannot be undone, so it should be used with caution. For example, the statement DROP TABLE Customers; will delete the table named Customers and all its data from the database.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 144.
Question #51
A technician is called to replace a display for a workstation.
Which of the following would MOST likely be used to connect the display to the workstation?
- A . USB
- B . NFC
- C . DSL
- D . DVI
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
DVI is the most likely connector that would be used to connect a display to a workstation. DVI stands for Digital Visual Interface, which is a standard that transmits digital video signals between devices. DVI can support high-resolution displays and multiple monitors.
DVI connectors have three types:
DVI-A (analog), DVI-D (digital), and DVI-I (integrated). DVI connectors have different numbers of pins depending on the type and mode.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 54.
D
Explanation:
DVI is the most likely connector that would be used to connect a display to a workstation. DVI stands for Digital Visual Interface, which is a standard that transmits digital video signals between devices. DVI can support high-resolution displays and multiple monitors.
DVI connectors have three types:
DVI-A (analog), DVI-D (digital), and DVI-I (integrated). DVI connectors have different numbers of pins depending on the type and mode.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 54.
Question #52
Ann, the president of a company, has requested assistance with choosing the appropriate Internet connectivity for her home. The home is in a remote location and has no connectivity to existing infrastructure.
Which of the following Internet service types should MOST likely be used?
- A . Fiber
- B . DSL
- C . Cable
- D . Satellite
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Satellite would be the best choice for Internet service for a home in a remote location that has no connectivity to existing infrastructure. Satellite Internet service uses satellites in orbit to provide wireless Internet access to users who have a satellite dish installed at their location. Satellite Internet service can cover areas where other types of Internet service are not available or reliable, such as rural or remote locations. Satellite Internet service can offer high-speed broadband connections, but it may also have drawbacks such as high latency, weather interference, and data caps.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 168.
D
Explanation:
Satellite would be the best choice for Internet service for a home in a remote location that has no connectivity to existing infrastructure. Satellite Internet service uses satellites in orbit to provide wireless Internet access to users who have a satellite dish installed at their location. Satellite Internet service can cover areas where other types of Internet service are not available or reliable, such as rural or remote locations. Satellite Internet service can offer high-speed broadband connections, but it may also have drawbacks such as high latency, weather interference, and data caps.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 168.
Question #53
Which of the following is MOST likely used to represent international text data?
- A . ASCII
- B . Octal
- C . Hexadecimal
- D . Unicode
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
: Unicode is the most likely encoding standard used to represent international text data. Unicode is a universal character set that can encode over a million characters from different languages, scripts, symbols, and emojis. Unicode supports multiple encoding forms, such as UTF-8, UTF-16, and UTF-32, that use different numbers of bytes to represent each character. Unicode enables consistent and interoperable representation and processing of text data across different platforms and applications.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 138.
D
Explanation:
: Unicode is the most likely encoding standard used to represent international text data. Unicode is a universal character set that can encode over a million characters from different languages, scripts, symbols, and emojis. Unicode supports multiple encoding forms, such as UTF-8, UTF-16, and UTF-32, that use different numbers of bytes to represent each character. Unicode enables consistent and interoperable representation and processing of text data across different platforms and applications.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 138.
Question #54
For a disaster recovery exercise, a company wants to ensure customer data is recovered before operational data.
This is an example of:
- A . redundancy.
- B . replication.
- C . prioritization.
- D . fault tolerance.
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Prioritization is the example of a disaster recovery exercise that involves ensuring customer data is recovered before operational data. Prioritization is the process of ranking or ordering the importance or urgency of tasks, goals, or resources. In disaster recovery, prioritization helps to determine which data, systems, or functions should be restored first based on their criticality or impact on the business continuity. For example, a company may prioritize customer data over operational data because customer data is more valuable or essential for the business operations.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 200.
C
Explanation:
Prioritization is the example of a disaster recovery exercise that involves ensuring customer data is recovered before operational data. Prioritization is the process of ranking or ordering the importance or urgency of tasks, goals, or resources. In disaster recovery, prioritization helps to determine which data, systems, or functions should be restored first based on their criticality or impact on the business continuity. For example, a company may prioritize customer data over operational data because customer data is more valuable or essential for the business operations.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 200.
Question #55
Which of the following operating systems do not require extensions on files to execute a program? (Select TWO).
- A . Windows 7
- B . Windows 8
- C . UNIX
- D . Windows Server 2012
- E . Android
- F . Linux
Correct Answer: C, F
C, F
Explanation:
UNIX and Linux are the examples of operating systems that do not require extensions on files to execute a program. UNIX and Linux are operating systems that are based on the same kernel and share many features and commands. UNIX and Linux do not rely on file extensions to determine the file type or function. Instead, they use file permissions and attributes to indicate whether a file is executable or not. File extensions are optional and mainly used for human readability or compatibility with other systems.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 86.
C, F
Explanation:
UNIX and Linux are the examples of operating systems that do not require extensions on files to execute a program. UNIX and Linux are operating systems that are based on the same kernel and share many features and commands. UNIX and Linux do not rely on file extensions to determine the file type or function. Instead, they use file permissions and attributes to indicate whether a file is executable or not. File extensions are optional and mainly used for human readability or compatibility with other systems.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 86.
Question #56
A technician needs to install a wireless router for a client that supports speeds up to 11Mbps and operates on the 2.4GHz band.
Which of the following should the technician select?
- A . 802.11a
- B . 802.11b
- C . 802.11g
- D . 802.11n
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
B
Explanation:
Question #56
A technician needs to install a wireless router for a client that supports speeds up to 11Mbps and operates on the 2.4GHz band.
Which of the following should the technician select?
- A . 802.11a
- B . 802.11b
- C . 802.11g
- D . 802.11n
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
B
Explanation:
Question #58
Which of the following is an example of multifactor authentication?
- A . Password and passphrase
- B . Fingerprint and retina scan
- C . Hardware token and smartphone
- D . Smart card and PIN
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Smart card and PIN are the examples of multifactor authentication. Multifactor authentication is a security method that requires two or more factors or pieces of evidence to verify the identity of a user or device. The factors are usually classified into three categories: something you know (such as a password or PIN), something you have (such as a smart card or token), or something you are (such as a fingerprint or retina scan). Multifactor authentication provides stronger security than single-factor authentication because it reduces the risk of compromise if one factor is lost or stolen.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 207.
D
Explanation:
Smart card and PIN are the examples of multifactor authentication. Multifactor authentication is a security method that requires two or more factors or pieces of evidence to verify the identity of a user or device. The factors are usually classified into three categories: something you know (such as a password or PIN), something you have (such as a smart card or token), or something you are (such as a fingerprint or retina scan). Multifactor authentication provides stronger security than single-factor authentication because it reduces the risk of compromise if one factor is lost or stolen.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 207.
Question #59
Which of the following language types would a web developer MOST likely use to create a website?
- A . Interpreted
- B . Query
- C . Compiled
- D . Assembly
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Interpreted is the type of language that a web developer would most likely use to create a website. Interpreted languages are languages that do not need to be compiled before execution. Instead, they are translated into machine code by an interpreter program at run time. Interpreted languages are often used for web development because they are portable, flexible, and easy to modify. Examples of interpreted languages include HTML, CSS, JavaScript, PHP, and Python.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 132-133. edge browser. The user has the page open in a Microsoft Edge browser window whose metadata is:
A
Explanation:
Interpreted is the type of language that a web developer would most likely use to create a website. Interpreted languages are languages that do not need to be compiled before execution. Instead, they are translated into machine code by an interpreter program at run time. Interpreted languages are often used for web development because they are portable, flexible, and easy to modify. Examples of interpreted languages include HTML, CSS, JavaScript, PHP, and Python.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 132-133. edge browser. The user has the page open in a Microsoft Edge browser window whose metadata is:
Question #60
A developer is creating specific step-by-step instructions/procedures and conditional statements that will be used by a computer program to solve problems.
Which of the following is being developed?
- A . Algorithm
- B . Software
- C . Pseudocode
- D . Flowchart
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
An algorithm is a set of specific step-by-step instructions/procedures and conditional statements that will be used by a computer program to solve problems. An algorithm defines the logic and sequence of actions that a computer program must follow to perform a task or achieve a goal. An algorithm can be expressed in various ways, such as pseudocode, flowchart, or natural language.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 131.
A
Explanation:
An algorithm is a set of specific step-by-step instructions/procedures and conditional statements that will be used by a computer program to solve problems. An algorithm defines the logic and sequence of actions that a computer program must follow to perform a task or achieve a goal. An algorithm can be expressed in various ways, such as pseudocode, flowchart, or natural language.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 131.
Question #61
A startup company has created a logo. The company wants to ensure no other entity can use the logo for any purpose.
Which of the following should the company use to BEST protect the logo? (Select TWO).
- A . Patent
- B . Copyright
- C . NDA
- D . Trademark
- E . EULA
Correct Answer: B, D
B, D
Explanation:
A logo is a graphical representation of a company’s name, brand, or identity. A logo can be protected by both copyright and trademark laws. Copyright is a type of intellectual property that protects the original expression of ideas in tangible forms, such as books, music, art, or software. Copyright protects the logo from being copied, reproduced, or distributed without the permission of the owner. Trademark is a type of intellectual property that protects a word, phrase, symbol, or design that identifies and distinguishes the source of goods or services of one party from those of others. Trademark protects the logo from being used by other parties in a way that causes confusion or deception among consumers.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 211.
B, D
Explanation:
A logo is a graphical representation of a company’s name, brand, or identity. A logo can be protected by both copyright and trademark laws. Copyright is a type of intellectual property that protects the original expression of ideas in tangible forms, such as books, music, art, or software. Copyright protects the logo from being copied, reproduced, or distributed without the permission of the owner. Trademark is a type of intellectual property that protects a word, phrase, symbol, or design that identifies and distinguishes the source of goods or services of one party from those of others. Trademark protects the logo from being used by other parties in a way that causes confusion or deception among consumers.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 211.
Question #62
Which of the following would be BEST to keep the data on a laptop safe if the laptop is lost or stolen?
- A . Host-based firewall
- B . Strong administrator password
- C . Anti-malware software
- D . Full disk encryption
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Full disk encryption would be the best way to keep the data on a laptop safe if the laptop is lost or stolen. Full disk encryption is a security technique that encrypts all the data on a hard drive, including the operating system, applications, and files. Full disk encryption prevents unauthorized access to the data without the correct password or key. Full disk encryption can protect the data on a laptop even if the laptop is physically removed or tampered with.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 203.
D
Explanation:
Full disk encryption would be the best way to keep the data on a laptop safe if the laptop is lost or stolen. Full disk encryption is a security technique that encrypts all the data on a hard drive, including the operating system, applications, and files. Full disk encryption prevents unauthorized access to the data without the correct password or key. Full disk encryption can protect the data on a laptop even if the laptop is physically removed or tampered with.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 203.
Question #63
In which of the following situations should there be come expectation of privacy?
- A . Posting a comment on a friend’s social media page
- B . Submitting personal information on a school enrollment site
- C . Posting a comment on a video sharing site
- D . Sending email and pictures to a close relative
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Submitting personal information on a school enrollment site is an example of a situation where there should be some expectation of privacy. Privacy is the right or ability of individuals or groups to control or limit the access or disclosure of their personal information by others. Personal information is any information that can identify or relate to a specific person, such as name, address, phone number, email, social security number, etc. A school enrollment site should have a privacy policy that explains how it collects, uses, and protects the personal information of its users. Users should read and understand the privacy policy before submitting their personal information on the site.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 205.
B
Explanation:
Submitting personal information on a school enrollment site is an example of a situation where there should be some expectation of privacy. Privacy is the right or ability of individuals or groups to control or limit the access or disclosure of their personal information by others. Personal information is any information that can identify or relate to a specific person, such as name, address, phone number, email, social security number, etc. A school enrollment site should have a privacy policy that explains how it collects, uses, and protects the personal information of its users. Users should read and understand the privacy policy before submitting their personal information on the site.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 205.
Question #64
Which of the following data types should a developer use when creating a variable to hold a postal code?
- A . Integer
- B . String
- C . Float
- D . Boolean
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A string is the data type that a developer should use when creating a variable to hold a postal code. A string is a sequence of characters that can represent text, symbols, or numbers. A string can store any value that can be typed on a keyboard, such as “Hello”, “123”, or “90210”. A string is enclosed by quotation marks to distinguish it from other types of data. A postal code is an example of a value that can be stored as a string.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 139.
B
Explanation:
A string is the data type that a developer should use when creating a variable to hold a postal code. A string is a sequence of characters that can represent text, symbols, or numbers. A string can store any value that can be typed on a keyboard, such as “Hello”, “123”, or “90210”. A string is enclosed by quotation marks to distinguish it from other types of data. A postal code is an example of a value that can be stored as a string.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 139.
Question #65
Which of the following is the closest to machine language?
- A . Scripted languages
- B . Compiled languages
- C . Query languages
- D . Assembly languages
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Assembly languages are the closest to machine language among the given options. Machine language is the lowest-level programming language that consists of binary codes (0s and 1s) that can be directly understood by the processor. Machine language is specific to each type of processor and hardware platform. Assembly languages are low-level programming languages that use mnemonic codes (abbreviations or symbols) to represent machine language instructions. Assembly languages are easier to read and write than machine language, but they still require an assembler program to convert them into machine language.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 132-133.
D
Explanation:
Assembly languages are the closest to machine language among the given options. Machine language is the lowest-level programming language that consists of binary codes (0s and 1s) that can be directly understood by the processor. Machine language is specific to each type of processor and hardware platform. Assembly languages are low-level programming languages that use mnemonic codes (abbreviations or symbols) to represent machine language instructions. Assembly languages are easier to read and write than machine language, but they still require an assembler program to convert them into machine language.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 132-133.
Question #66
A function is BEST used for enabling programs to:
- A . hold a list of numbers.
- B . be divided into reusable components.
- C . define needed constant values.
- D . define variables to hold different values.
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
A function is best used for enabling programs to define variables to hold different values. A function is a named block of code that performs a specific task or operation. A function can have one or more parameters, which are variables that hold the input values for the function. A function can also have a return value, which is the output value that the function produces. A function can be called or invoked by other parts of the program to execute the code inside the function. A function can help programs to avoid repeating the same code, improve readability and modularity, and reduce errors and complexity.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 133.
D
Explanation:
A function is best used for enabling programs to define variables to hold different values. A function is a named block of code that performs a specific task or operation. A function can have one or more parameters, which are variables that hold the input values for the function. A function can also have a return value, which is the output value that the function produces. A function can be called or invoked by other parts of the program to execute the code inside the function. A function can help programs to avoid repeating the same code, improve readability and modularity, and reduce errors and complexity.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 133.
Question #67
When transferring a file across the network, which of the following would be the FASTEST transfer rate?
- A . 1001Kbps
- B . 110Mbps
- C . 1.22Gbps
- D . 123Mbps
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
C
Explanation:
Question #67
When transferring a file across the network, which of the following would be the FASTEST transfer rate?
- A . 1001Kbps
- B . 110Mbps
- C . 1.22Gbps
- D . 123Mbps
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
C
Explanation:
Question #69
A technician has been asked to assign an IP address to a new desktop computer.
Which of the following is a valid IP address the technician should assign?
- A . 127.0.0.1
- B . 172.16.2.189
- C . 192.168.257.1
- D . 255.255.255.0
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
B
Explanation:
Question #69
A technician has been asked to assign an IP address to a new desktop computer.
Which of the following is a valid IP address the technician should assign?
- A . 127.0.0.1
- B . 172.16.2.189
- C . 192.168.257.1
- D . 255.255.255.0
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
B
Explanation:
Question #71
A game developer is purchasing a computing device to develop a game and recognizes the game engine software will require a device with high-end specifications that can be upgraded.
Which of the following devices would be BEST for the developer to buy?
- A . Laptop
- B . Server
- C . Game console
- D . Workstation
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
A workstation would be the best device for a game developer to buy if the game engine software requires high-end specifications and upgradability. A workstation is a computing device that is designed for professional or specialized applications that require high performance, reliability, and scalability. A workstation typically has more powerful components than a standard desktop computer, such as faster processors, larger memory, better graphics cards, and more storage options. A workstation can also be customized and upgraded to meet specific needs or preferences.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 26.
D
Explanation:
A workstation would be the best device for a game developer to buy if the game engine software requires high-end specifications and upgradability. A workstation is a computing device that is designed for professional or specialized applications that require high performance, reliability, and scalability. A workstation typically has more powerful components than a standard desktop computer, such as faster processors, larger memory, better graphics cards, and more storage options. A workstation can also be customized and upgraded to meet specific needs or preferences.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 26.
Question #72
A company requires several reports that analyze related information from sales, inventory, marketing, and compensation data.
Which of the following is the BEST place to store this data?
- A . Flat file
- B . Word processor
- C . Database
- D . Network share
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A database would be the best place to store data that requires analysis from multiple sources, such as sales, inventory, marketing, and compensation data. A database is a collection of organized and related data that can be stored, accessed, manipulated, and analyzed by software applications or users. A database can store various types of data, such as text, numbers, dates, images, etc., in tables, records, fields, or other structures. A database can also support queries, reports, transactions, security, backup, and recovery functions.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 142.
C
Explanation:
A database would be the best place to store data that requires analysis from multiple sources, such as sales, inventory, marketing, and compensation data. A database is a collection of organized and related data that can be stored, accessed, manipulated, and analyzed by software applications or users. A database can store various types of data, such as text, numbers, dates, images, etc., in tables, records, fields, or other structures. A database can also support queries, reports, transactions, security, backup, and recovery functions.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 142.
Question #73
A computer user is downloading software from the Internet and notices the following at the end of the install file: “…x86.exe”.
Which of the following statements BEST represents what the “…x86.exe” means in the installation file?
- A . x86 only supports an installation on a 32-bit CPU architecture.
- B . x86 supports an installation on a 32-bit and a 64-bit CPU architecture.
- C . x86 only supports an installation on a 64-bit CPU architecture.
- D . x86 supports an installation on a 16-bit CPU architecture.
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
x86 only supports an installation on a 32-bit CPU architecture is the statement that best represents what the “…x86.exe” means in the installation file. x86 is a term that refers to a family of processors or instruction sets that use 32-bit registers and memory addresses. x86 processors can only run software applications that are compatible with the 32-bit architecture. An installation file that has the suffix “…x86.exe” indicates that the file is an executable file that can only be installed on a 32-bit system. A 64-bit system can run both 32-bit and 64-bit applications, but a 32-bit system can only run 32-bit applications.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 34.
A
Explanation:
x86 only supports an installation on a 32-bit CPU architecture is the statement that best represents what the “…x86.exe” means in the installation file. x86 is a term that refers to a family of processors or instruction sets that use 32-bit registers and memory addresses. x86 processors can only run software applications that are compatible with the 32-bit architecture. An installation file that has the suffix “…x86.exe” indicates that the file is an executable file that can only be installed on a 32-bit system. A 64-bit system can run both 32-bit and 64-bit applications, but a 32-bit system can only run 32-bit applications.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 34.
Question #74
Which of the following would be used to send messages using the SMTP protocol?
- A . Document sharing software
- B . Instant messaging software
- C . Conferencing software
- D . Email software
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Email software would be used to send messages using the SMTP protocol. SMTP stands for Simple Mail Transfer Protocol, which is a network protocol that enables the transmission of email messages from a client to a server or from one server to another. Email software is an application that allows users to compose, send, receive, and manage email messages using SMTP or other protocols, such as POP3 or IMAP. Examples of email software include Microsoft Outlook, Gmail, Yahoo Mail, etc.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 166.
D
Explanation:
Email software would be used to send messages using the SMTP protocol. SMTP stands for Simple Mail Transfer Protocol, which is a network protocol that enables the transmission of email messages from a client to a server or from one server to another. Email software is an application that allows users to compose, send, receive, and manage email messages using SMTP or other protocols, such as POP3 or IMAP. Examples of email software include Microsoft Outlook, Gmail, Yahoo Mail, etc.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 166.
Question #75
Malware infections are being caused by websites.
Which of the following settings will help prevent
infections caused by Internet browsing?
- A . Turn on private browsing
- B . Delete browsing history on program close.
- C . Notify when downloads are complete.
- D . Configure prompting before downloading content.
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Configuring prompting before downloading content will help prevent infections caused by Internet browsing. Prompting before downloading content is a browser setting that asks the user for confirmation or permission before downloading any file or program from a website. This setting can help prevent malware infections by allowing the user to check the source, type, and size of the file or program before downloading it. Prompting before downloading content can also help the user avoid unwanted or unnecessary downloads that may consume bandwidth or storage space.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 202.
D
Explanation:
Configuring prompting before downloading content will help prevent infections caused by Internet browsing. Prompting before downloading content is a browser setting that asks the user for confirmation or permission before downloading any file or program from a website. This setting can help prevent malware infections by allowing the user to check the source, type, and size of the file or program before downloading it. Prompting before downloading content can also help the user avoid unwanted or unnecessary downloads that may consume bandwidth or storage space.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 202.
Question #76
Which of the following is an example of information a company would ask employees to handle in a sensitive manner?
- A . Customer date of birth
- B . The first and last name of the Chief Executive Officer (CEO)
- C . Customer service number
- D . Company social media screen name
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Customer date of birth is an example of information that a company would ask employees to handle in a sensitive manner. Sensitive information is any information that can identify or relate to a specific person, such as name, address, phone number, email, social security number, date of birth, etc.
Sensitive information can also include financial, medical, legal, or personal records of a person. Sensitive information should be handled with care and confidentiality by employees to protect the privacy and security of the customers and the company. Employees should follow the company’s policies and procedures for handling sensitive information, such as encrypting, locking, shredding, or disposing of it properly.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 205.
A
Explanation:
Customer date of birth is an example of information that a company would ask employees to handle in a sensitive manner. Sensitive information is any information that can identify or relate to a specific person, such as name, address, phone number, email, social security number, date of birth, etc.
Sensitive information can also include financial, medical, legal, or personal records of a person. Sensitive information should be handled with care and confidentiality by employees to protect the privacy and security of the customers and the company. Employees should follow the company’s policies and procedures for handling sensitive information, such as encrypting, locking, shredding, or disposing of it properly.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 205.
Question #77
The sales department needs to keep a customer list that contains names, contact information, and sales records. This list will need to be edited by multiple people at the same time.
Which of the following applications should be used to create this list?
- A . Database software
- B . Word processing software
- C . Conferencing software
- D . Presentation software
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Database software would be the best application to create a list that contains names, contact information, and sales records that can be edited by multiple people at the same time. Database software is an application that allows users to create, store, access, manipulate, and analyze data in an organized and structured way. Database software can store various types of data in tables, records, fields, or other structures. Database software can also support queries, reports, transactions, security, backup, and recovery functions. Database software can allow multiple users to edit the same data concurrently with proper permissions and controls.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 142.
A
Explanation:
Database software would be the best application to create a list that contains names, contact information, and sales records that can be edited by multiple people at the same time. Database software is an application that allows users to create, store, access, manipulate, and analyze data in an organized and structured way. Database software can store various types of data in tables, records, fields, or other structures. Database software can also support queries, reports, transactions, security, backup, and recovery functions. Database software can allow multiple users to edit the same data concurrently with proper permissions and controls.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 142.
Question #78
Ann, a user, connects to the corporate WiFi and tries to browse the Internet. Ann finds that she can only get to local (intranet) pages.
Which of the following actions would MOST likely fix the problem?
- A . Renew the IP address.
- B . Configure the browser proxy settings.
- C . Clear the browser cache.
- D . Disable the pop-up blocker
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Renewing the IP address would most likely fix the problem of not being able to access the Internet after connecting to the corporate WiFi. An IP address is a unique identifier that is assigned to a device on a network that uses the Internet Protocol (IP). An IP address consists of four numbers separated by dots, each ranging from 0 to 255. For example, 192.168.1.1 is an IP address. An IP address can be assigned statically (manually) or dynamically (automatically) by a DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) server on the network. Sometimes, an IP address may become invalid or conflict with another device on the network, which may prevent the device from accessing the Internet or other network resources. Renewing the IP address is a process of releasing the current IP address and requesting a new IP address from the DHCP server. Renewing the IP address can help resolve any IP address issues and restore network connectivity.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 165-166.
A
Explanation:
Renewing the IP address would most likely fix the problem of not being able to access the Internet after connecting to the corporate WiFi. An IP address is a unique identifier that is assigned to a device on a network that uses the Internet Protocol (IP). An IP address consists of four numbers separated by dots, each ranging from 0 to 255. For example, 192.168.1.1 is an IP address. An IP address can be assigned statically (manually) or dynamically (automatically) by a DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) server on the network. Sometimes, an IP address may become invalid or conflict with another device on the network, which may prevent the device from accessing the Internet or other network resources. Renewing the IP address is a process of releasing the current IP address and requesting a new IP address from the DHCP server. Renewing the IP address can help resolve any IP address issues and restore network connectivity.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 165-166.
Question #79
Which of the following would be considered the BEST method of securely distributing medical records?
- A . Encrypted flash drive
- B . Social networking sites
- C . Fax
- D . FTP file sharing
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
An encrypted flash drive would be the best method of securely distributing medical records among the given options. An encrypted flash drive is a portable storage device that uses encryption to protect the data stored on it. Encryption is a process of transforming data into an unreadable form that can only be restored with a key or password. Encryption can prevent unauthorized access or disclosure of sensitive or confidential data, such as medical records, if the flash drive is lost or stolen. An encrypted flash drive can also be used to transfer data between different devices or locations securely.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 203.
A
Explanation:
An encrypted flash drive would be the best method of securely distributing medical records among the given options. An encrypted flash drive is a portable storage device that uses encryption to protect the data stored on it. Encryption is a process of transforming data into an unreadable form that can only be restored with a key or password. Encryption can prevent unauthorized access or disclosure of sensitive or confidential data, such as medical records, if the flash drive is lost or stolen. An encrypted flash drive can also be used to transfer data between different devices or locations securely.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 203.
Question #80
Which of the following should have the HIGHEST expectation of privacy?
- A . A picture posted to a social media website
- B . A presentation saved to a corporate file server
- C . A locally stored word processing document
- D . A spreadsheet emailed to a business client
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A locally stored word processing document would have the highest expectation of privacy among the given options. Privacy is the right or ability of individuals or groups to control or limit the access or disclosure of their personal information by others. A locally stored word processing document is a file that contains text, images, or other data that is created and saved on a device’s internal storage, such as a hard drive or SSD. A locally stored word processing document can have a higher level of privacy than a file that is shared, uploaded, or transmitted over the Internet or a network, because it is less exposed to potential threats or breaches. However, a locally stored word processing document may still require additional security measures, such as encryption, password protection, or backup, to ensure its privacy and integrity.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 205.
C
Explanation:
A locally stored word processing document would have the highest expectation of privacy among the given options. Privacy is the right or ability of individuals or groups to control or limit the access or disclosure of their personal information by others. A locally stored word processing document is a file that contains text, images, or other data that is created and saved on a device’s internal storage, such as a hard drive or SSD. A locally stored word processing document can have a higher level of privacy than a file that is shared, uploaded, or transmitted over the Internet or a network, because it is less exposed to potential threats or breaches. However, a locally stored word processing document may still require additional security measures, such as encryption, password protection, or backup, to ensure its privacy and integrity.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 205.
Question #81
Which of the following storage devices have a spinning disk? (Choose two.)
- A . Optical drive
- B . SSD
- C . HDD
- D . Flash drive
- E . RAM
- F . ROM
Correct Answer: A, C
A, C
Explanation:
Optical drive and HDD are the examples of storage devices that have a spinning disk among the given options. A spinning disk is a component of a storage device that rotates at high speed to store and access data on its surface. A spinning disk is usually made of metal, glass, or plastic and coated with a magnetic material. A spinning disk has one or more read/write heads that move across the disk to read or write data on concentric tracks or sectors. An optical drive is a storage device that uses laser beams to read or write data on optical discs, such as CDs, DVDs, or Blu-ray discs. An HDD (hard disk drive) is a storage device that uses magnetic fields to read or write data on hard disks.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 38-39.
A, C
Explanation:
Optical drive and HDD are the examples of storage devices that have a spinning disk among the given options. A spinning disk is a component of a storage device that rotates at high speed to store and access data on its surface. A spinning disk is usually made of metal, glass, or plastic and coated with a magnetic material. A spinning disk has one or more read/write heads that move across the disk to read or write data on concentric tracks or sectors. An optical drive is a storage device that uses laser beams to read or write data on optical discs, such as CDs, DVDs, or Blu-ray discs. An HDD (hard disk drive) is a storage device that uses magnetic fields to read or write data on hard disks.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 38-39.
Question #82
Which of the following computer components allows for communication over a computer network?
- A . RAM
- B . NIC
- C . CPU
- D . NAS
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A NIC (network interface card) is the computer component that allows for communication over a computer network. A NIC is a hardware device that connects a computer to a network cable or a wireless access point. A NIC enables the computer to send and receive data packets over the network using protocols such as TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol). A NIC has a unique identifier called a MAC (media access control) address that distinguishes it from other devices on the network.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 169.
B
Explanation:
A NIC (network interface card) is the computer component that allows for communication over a computer network. A NIC is a hardware device that connects a computer to a network cable or a wireless access point. A NIC enables the computer to send and receive data packets over the network using protocols such as TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol). A NIC has a unique identifier called a MAC (media access control) address that distinguishes it from other devices on the network.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 169.
Question #83
A company desires to implement a six-month survey site within a remote location.
Which of the following is the BEST option for Internet service?
- A . Cellular
- B . Satellite
- C . Cable
- D . Fiber
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Cellular would be the best option for Internet service for a six-month survey site in a remote location among the given options. Cellular Internet service uses cellular networks to provide wireless Internet access to devices that have a cellular modem, such as smartphones, tablets, laptops, etc. Cellular Internet service can cover areas where other types of Internet service are not available or reliable, such as rural or remote locations. Cellular Internet service can offer high-speed broadband connections using technologies such as 3G, 4G, LTE, etc., but it may also have drawbacks such as limited coverage, signal interference, data caps, or high costs.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 168.
A
Explanation:
Cellular would be the best option for Internet service for a six-month survey site in a remote location among the given options. Cellular Internet service uses cellular networks to provide wireless Internet access to devices that have a cellular modem, such as smartphones, tablets, laptops, etc. Cellular Internet service can cover areas where other types of Internet service are not available or reliable, such as rural or remote locations. Cellular Internet service can offer high-speed broadband connections using technologies such as 3G, 4G, LTE, etc., but it may also have drawbacks such as limited coverage, signal interference, data caps, or high costs.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 168.
Question #84
Which of the following authorization techniques is used to assign permissions and authorize a user based on job title or function?
- A . Rule-based access control
- B . Mandatory access control
- C . Role-based access control
- D . Discretionary access control
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Role-based access control is the authorization technique that is used to assign permissions and authorize a user based on job title or function. Role-based access control is a security method that defines roles for users or groups and assigns permissions for each role based on their responsibilities or tasks. Role-based access control simplifies the management of user access rights by allowing administrators to grant or revoke permissions based on roles rather than individual users.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 207.
C
Explanation:
Role-based access control is the authorization technique that is used to assign permissions and authorize a user based on job title or function. Role-based access control is a security method that defines roles for users or groups and assigns permissions for each role based on their responsibilities or tasks. Role-based access control simplifies the management of user access rights by allowing administrators to grant or revoke permissions based on roles rather than individual users.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 207.
Question #85
A user has purchased a high-end graphics card that contains a GPU.
Which of the following processes is being performed by the GPU on the graphics card?
- A . Input
- B . Output
- C . Storage
- D . Processing
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Processing is the process that is being performed by the GPU on the graphics card. A GPU (graphics
processing unit) is a specialized processor that is designed to handle graphics-related tasks, such as rendering images, videos, animations, or games. A GPU can perform parallel computations faster and more efficiently than a CPU (central processing unit), which is the main processor of a computer. A GPU can be integrated into the motherboard or installed as a separate component on a graphics card. A graphics card is an expansion card that connects to a slot on the motherboard and provides video output to a display device, such as a monitor or projector.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 35.
D
Explanation:
Processing is the process that is being performed by the GPU on the graphics card. A GPU (graphics
processing unit) is a specialized processor that is designed to handle graphics-related tasks, such as rendering images, videos, animations, or games. A GPU can perform parallel computations faster and more efficiently than a CPU (central processing unit), which is the main processor of a computer. A GPU can be integrated into the motherboard or installed as a separate component on a graphics card. A graphics card is an expansion card that connects to a slot on the motherboard and provides video output to a display device, such as a monitor or projector.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 35.
Question #86
A company purchased a software program. The EULA states that the software can be installed on as many computers as the company wants, but only four users can be using the software at any point in time.
Which of the following types of licenses is this an example of?
- A . Group license
- B . Concurrent license
- C . Subscription license
- D . Open-source license
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
: A concurrent license is a type of software license that allows a software program to be installed on as many computers as the company wants, but only a limited number of users can use the software at the same time. A concurrent license is based on the number of simultaneous users rather than the number of installations. A concurrent license can help a company save money and resources by sharing the software among multiple users who do not need to use the software all the time.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 211.
B
Explanation:
: A concurrent license is a type of software license that allows a software program to be installed on as many computers as the company wants, but only a limited number of users can use the software at the same time. A concurrent license is based on the number of simultaneous users rather than the number of installations. A concurrent license can help a company save money and resources by sharing the software among multiple users who do not need to use the software all the time.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 211.
Question #87
A user at a company visits a weather website often during the day. The user browses to the site in the afternoon and notices that the temperature listed is from the morning and is not the current temperature. The user closes the page and tries again with the same result.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
- A . Proxy server
- B . Browser add-on
- C . Corrupted cache
- D . Script blocker
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A corrupted cache is the most likely cause of the problem of seeing outdated information on a website. A cache is a temporary storage area that stores copies of frequently accessed data, such as web pages, images, or files. A cache can improve the performance and speed of data retrieval by reducing the need to access the original source. However, sometimes a cache may become corrupted or outdated, which may cause errors or inconsistencies in displaying the data. A corrupted cache may show old or incorrect information on a website instead of the current or updated information. To fix this problem, the user can clear the browser cache and reload the website.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 202.
C
Explanation:
A corrupted cache is the most likely cause of the problem of seeing outdated information on a website. A cache is a temporary storage area that stores copies of frequently accessed data, such as web pages, images, or files. A cache can improve the performance and speed of data retrieval by reducing the need to access the original source. However, sometimes a cache may become corrupted or outdated, which may cause errors or inconsistencies in displaying the data. A corrupted cache may show old or incorrect information on a website instead of the current or updated information. To fix this problem, the user can clear the browser cache and reload the website.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 202.
Question #88
Which of the following application delivery mechanisms BEST describes infrastructure located in an individual organization’s datacenter?
- A . Private
- B . Traditional
- C . Public
- D . Cloud
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Traditional is the application delivery mechanism that best describes infrastructure located in an individual organization’s datacenter. Traditional application delivery is a method of deploying and running software applications on physical servers or hardware that are owned and managed by the organization itself. Traditional application delivery requires the organization to purchase, install, configure, maintain, and secure the infrastructure and resources needed to support the applications. Traditional application delivery offers more control and customization over the applications, but it also involves more cost and complexity.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 144.
B
Explanation:
Traditional is the application delivery mechanism that best describes infrastructure located in an individual organization’s datacenter. Traditional application delivery is a method of deploying and running software applications on physical servers or hardware that are owned and managed by the organization itself. Traditional application delivery requires the organization to purchase, install, configure, maintain, and secure the infrastructure and resources needed to support the applications. Traditional application delivery offers more control and customization over the applications, but it also involves more cost and complexity.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 144.
Question #89
A database administrator wants to populate a database with large amounts of data from an external source.
Which of the following actions should be used to get the database populated?
- A . EXPORT
- B . IMPORT
- C . SELECT
- D . ALTER
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
IMPORT is the action that should be used to populate a database with large amounts of data from an external source. IMPORT is a command or function that allows a database to read and load data from an external file or source into a table or structure within the database. IMPORT can help a database administrator to transfer or migrate data from one database to another or from a different format to a database format. IMPORT can also help a database administrator to backup or restore data from a file or source.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 143.
B
Explanation:
IMPORT is the action that should be used to populate a database with large amounts of data from an external source. IMPORT is a command or function that allows a database to read and load data from an external file or source into a table or structure within the database. IMPORT can help a database administrator to transfer or migrate data from one database to another or from a different format to a database format. IMPORT can also help a database administrator to backup or restore data from a file or source.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 143.
Question #90
Which of the following would a company consider an asset?
- A . An external company used to destroy defective hard drives
- B . Information residing on backup tapes
- C . A company-sponsored technology conference
- D . A certified third-party vendor that provides critical components
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Information residing on backup tapes is an example of an asset that a company would consider valuable or important. An asset is any resource or item that has value or benefit for an organization, such as hardware, software, data, personnel, etc. An asset can be tangible or intangible, physical or digital, owned or leased, etc. Information residing on backup tapes is an asset because it contains data that may be critical or essential for the organization’s operations, functions, or goals. Information residing on backup tapes may also contain sensitive or confidential data that needs to be protected from loss, damage, theft, or unauthorized access.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 204.
B
Explanation:
Information residing on backup tapes is an example of an asset that a company would consider valuable or important. An asset is any resource or item that has value or benefit for an organization, such as hardware, software, data, personnel, etc. An asset can be tangible or intangible, physical or digital, owned or leased, etc. Information residing on backup tapes is an asset because it contains data that may be critical or essential for the organization’s operations, functions, or goals. Information residing on backup tapes may also contain sensitive or confidential data that needs to be protected from loss, damage, theft, or unauthorized access.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 204.
Question #91
A company will begin to allow staff to work from home by means of formal request.
Which of the following is the BEST way for the company to document this change?
- A . Written procedure
- B . Written policy
- C . Written email
- D . Written memo
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A written policy is the best way for a company to document a change that allows staff to work from home by means of formal request. A policy is a statement or guideline that defines the rules, standards, or procedures for an organization’s actions, decisions, or behaviors. A policy can help an organization to achieve its objectives, comply with regulations, ensure consistency and quality, and communicate expectations and responsibilities. A written policy is a policy that is documented in a formal document that can be distributed, reviewed, updated, and enforced by the organization. A written policy can help a company to document a change that affects its staff, such as working from home, by specifying the criteria, process, benefits, limitations, and consequences of the change.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 210.
B
Explanation:
A written policy is the best way for a company to document a change that allows staff to work from home by means of formal request. A policy is a statement or guideline that defines the rules, standards, or procedures for an organization’s actions, decisions, or behaviors. A policy can help an organization to achieve its objectives, comply with regulations, ensure consistency and quality, and communicate expectations and responsibilities. A written policy is a policy that is documented in a formal document that can be distributed, reviewed, updated, and enforced by the organization. A written policy can help a company to document a change that affects its staff, such as working from home, by specifying the criteria, process, benefits, limitations, and consequences of the change.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 210.
Question #92
A company’s team members have both old and new laptops.
Which of the following connectors should be available in the conference room to ensure everyone can use the conference room projectors? (Choose two.)
- A . USB
- B . HDMI
- C . FireWire
- D . VGA
- E . Bluetooth
- F . RJ45
Correct Answer: B, D
B, D
Explanation:
HDMI and VGA are the connectors that should be available in the conference room to ensure everyone can use the conference room projectors. HDMI and VGA are types of video connectors that are used to connect a video source, such as a laptop, to a video output, such as a projector. HDMI stands for High-Definition Multimedia Interface, which is a digital connector that can transmit high-quality video and audio signals over a single cable. VGA stands for Video Graphics Array, which is an analog connector that can transmit standard-definition video signals over a 15-pin cable. HDMI and VGA are common video connectors that are found on old and new laptops, respectively. Having both HDMI and VGA connectors in the conference room can ensure compatibility and connectivity for different laptops and projectors.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 40.
B, D
Explanation:
HDMI and VGA are the connectors that should be available in the conference room to ensure everyone can use the conference room projectors. HDMI and VGA are types of video connectors that are used to connect a video source, such as a laptop, to a video output, such as a projector. HDMI stands for High-Definition Multimedia Interface, which is a digital connector that can transmit high-quality video and audio signals over a single cable. VGA stands for Video Graphics Array, which is an analog connector that can transmit standard-definition video signals over a 15-pin cable. HDMI and VGA are common video connectors that are found on old and new laptops, respectively. Having both HDMI and VGA connectors in the conference room can ensure compatibility and connectivity for different laptops and projectors.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 40.
Question #93
A programmer uses DML to modify:
- A . files
- B . permissions
- C . data
- D . backups
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A programmer uses DML to modify data in a database. DML stands for Data Manipulation Language, which is a subset of SQL (Structured Query Language) that is used to manipulate or change data in a database. DML includes commands or statements such as INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE, or MERGE, which can be used to add, modify, remove, or combine data in a table or structure within a database.
DML can help a programmer to perform various operations or functions on the data in a database.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 143.
C
Explanation:
A programmer uses DML to modify data in a database. DML stands for Data Manipulation Language, which is a subset of SQL (Structured Query Language) that is used to manipulate or change data in a database. DML includes commands or statements such as INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE, or MERGE, which can be used to add, modify, remove, or combine data in a table or structure within a database.
DML can help a programmer to perform various operations or functions on the data in a database.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 143.