Which of the following is NOT an integral part of VPN communication within a network?
- A . VPN key
- B . VPN community
- C . VPN trust entities
- D . VPN domain
A
Explanation:
– VPN key (to not be confused with pre-shared key that is used for authentication).
– VPN trust entities, such as a Check Point Internal Certificate Authority (ICA). The ICA is part of the Check Point suite used for creating SIC trusted connection between Security Gateways, authenticating administrators and third party servers. The ICA provides certificates for internal Security Gateways and remote access clients which negotiate the VPN link.
– VPN Domain – A group of computers and networks connected to a VPN tunnel by one VPN gateway that handles encryption and protects the VPN Domain members.
– VPN Community – A named collection of VPN domains, each protected by a VPN gateway.
Reference: http://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_VPN_AdminGuide/13868.htm
Two administrators Dave and Jon both manage R80 Management as administrators for ABC Corp. Jon logged into the R80 Management and then shortly after Dave logged in to the same server. They are both in the Security Policies view.
From the screenshots below, why does Dave not have the rule no.6 in his SmartConsole view even though Jon has it his in his SmartConsole view?
- A . Jon is currently editing rule no.6 but has Published part of his changes.
- B . Dave is currently editing rule no.6 and has marked this rule for deletion.
- C . Dave is currently editing rule no.6 and has deleted it from his Rule Base.
- D . Jon is currently editing rule no.6 but has not yet Published his changes.
D
Explanation:
When an administrator logs in to the Security Management Server through SmartConsole, a new editing session starts. The changes that the administrator makes during the session are only available to that administrator. Other administrators see a lock icon on object and rules that are being edited. To make changes available to all administrators, and to unlock the objects and rules that are being edited, the administrator must publish the session.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80.10/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.10_SecurityManagement_AdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80.10/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.10_SecurityManagement_AdminGuide/162331
Vanessa is firewall administrator in her company; her company is using Check Point firewalls on central and remote locations, which are managed centrally by R80 Security Management Server. One central location has an installed R77.30 Gateway on Open server. Remote location is using Check Point UTM-1 570 series appliance with R71.
Which encryption is used in Secure Internal Communication (SIC) between central management and firewall on each location?
- A . On central firewall AES128 encryption is used for SIC, on Remote firewall 3DES encryption is used for SIC.
- B . On both firewalls, the same encryption is used for SIC. This is AES-GCM-256.
- C . The Firewall Administrator can choose which encryption suite will be used by SIC.
- D . On central firewall AES256 encryption is used for SIC, on Remote firewall AES128 encryption is used for SIC.
A
Explanation:
Gateways above R71 use AES128 for SIC. If one of the gateways is R71 or below, the gateways use 3DES.
Reference: http://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/74/74d596decb6071a4ee642fbdaae7238f/CP_R80_SecurityManagement_AdminGuide.pdf?HashKey=1479584563_6f823c8ea1514609148aa4fec5425db2&xtn=.pdf
Review the following screenshot and select the BEST answer.
- A . Data Center Layer is an inline layer in the Access Control Policy.
- B . By default all layers are shared with all policies.
- C . If a connection is dropped in Network Layer, it will not be matched against the rules in Data Center Layer.
- D . If a connection is accepted in Network-layer, it will not be matched against the rules in Data Center Layer.
Which of the following is NOT a SecureXL traffic flow?
- A . Medium Path
- B . Accelerated Path
- C . High Priority Path
- D . Slow Path
C
Explanation:
SecureXL is an acceleration solution that maximizes performance of the Firewall and does not compromise security. When SecureXL is enabled on a Security Gateway, some CPU intensive operations are processed by virtualized software instead of the Firewall kernel. The Firewall can inspect and process connections more efficiently and accelerate throughput and connection rates. These are the SecureXL traffic flows: Slow path – Packets and connections that are inspected by the Firewall and are not processed by SecureXL. Accelerated path – Packets and connections that are offloaded to SecureXL and are not processed by the Firewall. Medium path – Packets that require deeper inspection cannot use the accelerated path. It is not necessary for the Firewall to inspect these packets, they can be offloaded and do not use the slow path. For example, packets that are inspected by IPS cannot use the accelerated path and can be offloaded to the IPS PSL (Passive Streaming Library). SecureXL processes these packets more quickly than packets on the slow path.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Firewall_WebAdmin/92711.htm
Which of the following Automatically Generated Rules NAT rules have the lowest implementation priority?
- A . Machine Hide NAT
- B . Address Range Hide NAT
- C . Network Hide NAT
- D . Machine Static NAT
BC
Explanation:
SmartDashboard organizes the automatic NAT rules in this order:
Which of the following Automatically Generated Rules NAT rules have the lowest implementation priority?
- A . Machine Hide NAT
- B . Address Range Hide NAT
- C . Network Hide NAT
- D . Machine Static NAT
BC
Explanation:
SmartDashboard organizes the automatic NAT rules in this order:
Which of the following Automatically Generated Rules NAT rules have the lowest implementation priority?
- A . Machine Hide NAT
- B . Address Range Hide NAT
- C . Network Hide NAT
- D . Machine Static NAT
BC
Explanation:
SmartDashboard organizes the automatic NAT rules in this order:
Which of the following Automatically Generated Rules NAT rules have the lowest implementation priority?
- A . Machine Hide NAT
- B . Address Range Hide NAT
- C . Network Hide NAT
- D . Machine Static NAT
BC
Explanation:
SmartDashboard organizes the automatic NAT rules in this order:
Which of the following Automatically Generated Rules NAT rules have the lowest implementation priority?
- A . Machine Hide NAT
- B . Address Range Hide NAT
- C . Network Hide NAT
- D . Machine Static NAT
BC
Explanation:
SmartDashboard organizes the automatic NAT rules in this order:
VPN gateways authenticate using ___________ and ___________ .
- A . Passwords; tokens
- B . Certificates; pre-shared secrets
- C . Certificates; passwords
- D . Tokens; pre-shared secrets
B
Explanation:
VPN gateways authenticate using Digital Certificates and Pre-shared secrets.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_VPN_AdminGuide/85469.htm
In R80 spoofing is defined as a method of:
- A . Disguising an illegal IP address behind an authorized IP address through Port Address Translation.
- B . Hiding your firewall from unauthorized users.
- C . Detecting people using false or wrong authentication logins
- D . Making packets appear as if they come from an authorized IP address.
D
Explanation:
IP spoofing replaces the untrusted source IP address with a fake, trusted one, to hijack connections to your network. Attackers use IP spoofing to send malware and bots to your protected network, to execute DoS attacks, or to gain unauthorized access.
Reference: http://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/74/74d596decb6071a4ee642fbdaae7238f/CP_R80_SecurityManagement_AdminGuide.pdf?HashKey=1479584563_6f823c8ea1514609148aa4fec5425db2&xtn=.pdf
The __________ is used to obtain identification and security information about network users.
- A . User Directory
- B . User server
- C . UserCheck
- D . User index
A
Explanation:
Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/downloads/product-related/datasheets/DS_UserDirectorySWB.pdf
Which Check Point feature enables application scanning and the detection?
- A . Application Dictionary
- B . AppWiki
- C . Application Library
- D . CPApp
B
Explanation:
AppWiki Application Classification Library
AppWiki enables application scanning and detection of more than 5,000 distinct applications and over 300,000 Web 2.0 widgets including instant messaging, social networking, video streaming, VoIP, games and more.
Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/products/application-control-software-blade/
DLP and Geo Policy are examples of what type of Policy?
- A . Standard Policies
- B . Shared Policies
- C . Inspection Policies
- D . Unified Policies
B
Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/126197
In which deployment is the security management server and Security Gateway installed on the same appliance?
- A . Bridge Mode
- B . Remote
- C . Standalone
- D . Distributed
C
Explanation:
Installing StandaloneStandalone Deployment – The Security Management Server and the Security Gateway are installed on the same computer or appliance.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Installation_and_Upgrade_GuidewebAdmin/89230.htm#o98246
A _________ VPN deployment is used to provide remote users with secure access to internal corporate resources by authenticating the user through an internet browser.
- A . Clientless remote access
- B . Clientless direct access
- C . Client-based remote access
- D . Direct access
A
Explanation:
Clientless – Users connect through a web browser and use HTTPS connections. Clientless solutions usually supply access to web-based corporate resources.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80BC_Firewall/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80BC_Firewall/92704
Which of the following statements is TRUE about R80 management plug-ins?
- A . The plug-in is a package installed on the Security Gateway.
- B . Installing a management plug-in requires a Snapshot, just like any upgrade process.
- C . A management plug-in interacts with a Security Management Server to provide new features and support for new products.
- D . Using a plug-in offers full central management only if special licensing is applied to specific features of the plug-in.
Gaia can be configured using the _______ or ______ .
- A . GaiaUI; command line interface
- B . WebUI; Gaia Interface
- C . Command line interface; WebUI
- D . Gaia Interface; GaiaUI
C
Explanation:
Configuring Gaia for the First Time
In This Section:
– Running the First Time Configuration Wizard in WebUI
– Running the First Time Configuration Wizard in CLI
After you install Gaia for the first time, use the First Time Configuration Wizard to configure the system and the Check Point products on it.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_Gaia_AdminWebAdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R77/CP_R77_Gaia_AdminWebAdminGuide/112568
Gaia can be configured using the _______ or ______ .
- A . GaiaUI; command line interface
- B . WebUI; Gaia Interface
- C . Command line interface; WebUI
- D . Gaia Interface; GaiaUI
C
Explanation:
Configuring Gaia for the First Time
In This Section:
– Running the First Time Configuration Wizard in WebUI
– Running the First Time Configuration Wizard in CLI
After you install Gaia for the first time, use the First Time Configuration Wizard to configure the system and the Check Point products on it.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_Gaia_AdminWebAdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R77/CP_R77_Gaia_AdminWebAdminGuide/112568
Gaia can be configured using the _______ or ______ .
- A . GaiaUI; command line interface
- B . WebUI; Gaia Interface
- C . Command line interface; WebUI
- D . Gaia Interface; GaiaUI
C
Explanation:
Configuring Gaia for the First Time
In This Section:
– Running the First Time Configuration Wizard in WebUI
– Running the First Time Configuration Wizard in CLI
After you install Gaia for the first time, use the First Time Configuration Wizard to configure the system and the Check Point products on it.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_Gaia_AdminWebAdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R77/CP_R77_Gaia_AdminWebAdminGuide/112568
Gaia can be configured using the _______ or ______ .
- A . GaiaUI; command line interface
- B . WebUI; Gaia Interface
- C . Command line interface; WebUI
- D . Gaia Interface; GaiaUI
C
Explanation:
Configuring Gaia for the First Time
In This Section:
– Running the First Time Configuration Wizard in WebUI
– Running the First Time Configuration Wizard in CLI
After you install Gaia for the first time, use the First Time Configuration Wizard to configure the system and the Check Point products on it.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_Gaia_AdminWebAdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R77/CP_R77_Gaia_AdminWebAdminGuide/112568
Log into Security Gateway CLI and run command cphaprob down.
- A . 1, 2, and 3
- B . 2 and 3
- C . 1 and 2
- D . 1 and 3
C
Explanation:
How to Initiate Failover
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_ClusterXL_AdminGuide/7298.htm
Which utility allows you to configure the DHCP service on GAIA from the command line?
- A . ifconfig
- B . dhcp_cfg
- C . sysconfig
- D . cpconfig
C
Explanation:
Sysconfig Configuration Options
Refrence: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Splat_AdminGuide/51548.htm
NOTE: Question must be wrong because no answer is possible for GAIA system, this must be SPLAT version.
DHCP CLI configuration for GAIA reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Gaia_WebAdmin/73181.htm#o80096
Which VPN routing option uses VPN routing for every connection a satellite gateway handles?
- A . To satellites through center only
- B . To center only
- C . To center and to other satellites through center
- D . To center, or through the center to other satellites, to internet and other VPN targets
D
Explanation:
On the VPN Routing page, enable the VPN routing for satellites section, by selecting one of these options:
– To center and to other Satellites through center; this allows connectivity between Gateways; for example, if the spoke Gateways are DAIP Gateways, and the hub is a Gateway with a static IP address
– To center, or through the center to other satellites, to Internet and other VPN targets; this allows connectivity between the Gateways, as well as the ability to inspect all communication passing through the hub to the Internet.
Reference: https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk31021
Which product correlates logs and detects security threats, providing a centralized display of potential attack patterns from all network devices?
- A . SmartView Monitor
- B . SmartEvent
- C . SmartUpdate
- D . SmartDashboard
B
Explanation:
SmartEvent correlates logs from all Check Point enforcement points, including end-points, to identify suspicious activity from the clutter. Rapid data analysis and custom event logs immediately alert administrators to anomalous behavior such as someone attempting to use the same credential in multiple geographies simultaneously.
Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/products/smartevent/
Assuming you have a Distributed Deployment, what will be the effect of running the following command on the Security Management Server?
- A . Remove the installed Security Policy.
- B . Remove the local ACL lists.
- C . No effect.
- D . Reset SIC on all gateways.
A
Explanation:
This command uninstall actual security policy (already installed)
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_SecurityGatewayTech_WebAdmin/6751.htm
An administrator is creating an IPsec site-to-site VPN between his corporate office and branch office. Both offices are protected by Check Point Security Gateway managed by the same Security Management Server. While configuring the VPN community to specify the pre-shared secret, the administrator found that the check box to enable pre-shared secret is shared and cannot be enabled.
Why does it not allow him to specify the pre-shared secret?
- A . IPsec VPN blade should be enabled on both Security Gateway.
- B . Pre-shared can only be used while creating a VPN between a third party vendor and Check Point Security Gateway.
- C . Certificate based Authentication is the only authentication method available between two Security Gateway managed by the same SMS.
- D . The Security Gateways are pre-R75.40.
You are the senior Firewall administrator for ABC Corp., and have recently returned from a training course on Check Point’s new advanced R80 management platform. You are presenting an in-house overview of the new features of Check Point R80 Management to the other administrators in ABC Corp.
How will you describe the new “Publish” button in R80 Management Console?
- A . The Publish button takes any changes an administrator has made in their management session, publishes a copy to the Check Point of R80, and then saves it to the R80 database.
- B . The Publish button takes any changes an administrator has made in their management session and publishes a copy to the Check Point Cloud of R80 and but does not save it to the R80
- C . The Publish button makes any changes an administrator has made in their management session visible to all other administrator sessions and saves it to the Database.
- D . The Publish button makes any changes an administrator has made in their management session visible to the new Unified Policy session and saves it to the Database.
C
Explanation:
To make your changes available to other administrators, and to save the database before installing a policy, you must publish the session. When you publish a session, a new database version is created.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/126197
Which of the following ClusterXL modes uses a non-unicast MAC address for the cluster IP address.
- A . High Availability
- B . Load Sharing Multicast
- C . Load Sharing Pivot
- D . Master/Backup
B
Explanation:
ClusterXL uses the Multicast mechanism to associate the virtual cluster IP addresses with all cluster members. By binding these IP addresses to a Multicast MAC address, it ensures that all packets sent to the cluster, acting as a gateway, will reach all members in the cluster.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_ClusterXL_AdminGuide/7292.htm
With the User Directory Software Blade, you can create R80 user definitions on a(an) ___________ Server.
- A . NT domain
- B . SMTP
- C . LDAP
- D . SecurID
C
Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/126197
Which of the following is NOT a component of a Distinguished Name?
- A . Organizational Unit
- B . Country
- C . Common Name
- D . User container
D
Explanation:
Distinguished Name Components CN=common name, OU=organizational unit, O=organization, L=locality, ST=state or province, C=country name
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_SecMan_WebAdmin/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R76/CP_R76_SecMan_WebAdmin/71950
What are the three authentication methods for SIC?
- A . Passwords, Users, and standards-based SSL for the creation of secure channels
- B . Certificates, standards-based SSL for the creation of secure channels, and 3DES or AES128 for encryption
- C . Packet Filtering, certificates, and 3DES or AES128 for encryption
- D . Certificates, Passwords, and Tokens
B
Explanation:
Secure Internal Communication (SIC)
Secure Internal Communication (SIC) lets Check Point platforms and products authenticate with each other. The SIC procedure creates a trusted status between gateways, management servers and other Check Point components. SIC is required to install polices on gateways and to send logs between gateways and management servers.
These security measures make sure of the safety of SIC:
– Certificates for authentication
– Standards-based SSL for the creation of the secure channel
– 3DES for encryption
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_SecMan_WebAdmin/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R76/CP_R76_SecMan_WebAdmin/71950
You have enabled “Extended Log” as a tracking option to a security rule.
However, you are still not seeing any data type information.
What is the MOST likely reason?
- A . Logging has disk space issues. Change logging storage options on the logging server or Security Management Server properties and install database.
- B . Content Awareness is not enabled.
- C . Identity Awareness is not enabled.
- D . Log Trimming is enabled.
A
Explanation:
The most likely reason for the logs data to stop is the low disk space on the logging device, which can be the Management Server or the Gateway Server.
What is the order of NAT priorities?
- A . Static NAT, IP pool NAT, hide NAT
- B . IP pool NAT, static NAT, hide NAT
- C . Static NAT, automatic NAT, hide NAT
- D . Static NAT, hide NAT, IP pool NAT
A
Explanation:
The order of NAT priorities is:
What is the order of NAT priorities?
- A . Static NAT, IP pool NAT, hide NAT
- B . IP pool NAT, static NAT, hide NAT
- C . Static NAT, automatic NAT, hide NAT
- D . Static NAT, hide NAT, IP pool NAT
A
Explanation:
The order of NAT priorities is:
What is the order of NAT priorities?
- A . Static NAT, IP pool NAT, hide NAT
- B . IP pool NAT, static NAT, hide NAT
- C . Static NAT, automatic NAT, hide NAT
- D . Static NAT, hide NAT, IP pool NAT
A
Explanation:
The order of NAT priorities is:
What is the order of NAT priorities?
- A . Static NAT, IP pool NAT, hide NAT
- B . IP pool NAT, static NAT, hide NAT
- C . Static NAT, automatic NAT, hide NAT
- D . Static NAT, hide NAT, IP pool NAT
A
Explanation:
The order of NAT priorities is:
Which of the following is an identity acquisition method that allows a Security Gateway to identify Active Directory users and computers?
- A . UserCheck
- B . Active Directory Query
- C . Account Unit Query
- D . User Directory Query
B
Explanation:
AD Query extracts user and computer identity information from the Active Directory Security Event Logs. The system generates a Security Event log entry when a user or computer accesses a network resource. For example, this occurs when a user logs in, unlocks a screen, or accesses a network drive.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_IdentityAwareness_AdminGuide/62402.htm
Ken wants to obtain a configuration lock from other administrator on R80 Security Management Server Operating System. He can do this via WebUI or via CLI.
Which command should he use in CLI?
- A . remove database lock
- B . The database feature has one command: lock database override.
- C . override database lock
- D . The database feature has two commands: lock database overrideand unlock database. Both will work.
D
Explanation:
Use the database feature to obtain the configuration lock.
The database feature has two commands:
– lock database [override].
– unlock database
The commands do the same thing: obtain the configuration lock from another administrator.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Gaia_WebAdmin/75697.htm#o73091
Examine the following Rule Base.
What can we infer about the recent changes made to the Rule Base?
- A . Rule 7 was created by the ‘admin’ administrator in the current session
- B . 8 changes have been made by administrators since the last policy installation
- C . Te rules 1, 5 and 6 cannot be edited by the ‘admin’ administrator
- D . Rule 1 and object webserver are locked by another administrator
D
Explanation:
On top of the print screen there is a number "8" which consists for the number of changes made and not saved.
Session Management Toolbar (top of SmartConsole)
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/117948
ALPHA Corp has a new administrator who logs into the Gaia Portal to make some changes. He realizes that even though he has logged in as an administrator, he is unable to make any changes because all configuration options are greyed out as shown in the screenshot image below.
What is the likely cause for this?
- A . The Gaia /bin/confdis locked by another administrator from a SmartConsole session.
- B . The database is locked by another administrator SSH session.
- C . The Network address of his computer is in the blocked hosts.
- D . The IP address of his computer is not in the allowed hosts.
B
Explanation:
There is a lock on top left side of the screen. B is the logical answer.
Administrator Kofi has just made some changes on his Management Server and then clicks on the Publish button in SmartConsole but then gets the error message shown in the screenshot below.
Where can the administrator check for more information on these errors?
- A . The Log and Monitor section in SmartConsole
- B . The Validations section in SmartConsole
- C . The Objects section in SmartConsole
- D . The Policies section in SmartConsole
B
Explanation:
Validation Errors
The validations pane in SmartConsole shows configuration error messages. Examples of errors are object names that are not unique, and the use of objects that are not valid in the Rule Base. To publish, you must fix the errors.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/126197
You are working with multiple Security Gateways enforcing an extensive number of rules. To simplify security administration, which action would you choose?
- A . Eliminate all possible contradictory rules such as the Stealth or Cleanup rules.
- B . Create a separate Security Policy package for each remote Security Gateway.
- C . Create network objects that restrict all applicable rules to only certain networks.
- D . Run separate SmartConsole instances to login and configure each Security Gateway directly.
Harriet wants to protect sensitive information from intentional loss when users browse to a specific URL: https://personal.mymail.com, which blade will she enable to achieve her goal?
- A . DLP
- B . SSL Inspection
- C . Application Control
- D . URL Filtering
A
Explanation:
Check Point revolutionizes DLP by combining technology and processes to move businesses from passive detection to active Data Loss Prevention. Innovative MultiSpect™ data classification combines user, content and process information to make accurate decisions, while UserCheck™ technology empowers users to remediate incidents in real time. Check Point’s self-educating network-based DLP solution frees IT/security personnel from incident handling and educates users on proper data handling policies― protecting sensitive corporate information from both intentional and unintentional loss.
Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/downloads/product-related/datasheets/DLP-software-bladedatasheet.pdf
To optimize Rule Base efficiency the most hit rules should be where?
- A . Removed from the Rule Base.
- B . Towards the middle of the Rule Base.
- C . Towards the top of the Rule Base.
- D . Towards the bottom of the Rule Base.
C
Explanation:
It is logical that if lesser rules are checked for the matched rule to be found the lesser CPU cycles the device is using. Checkpoint match a session from the first rule on top till the last on the bottom.
Which of the following is NOT a license activation method?
- A . SmartConsole Wizard
- B . Online Activation
- C . License Activation Wizard
- D . Offline Activation
Which policy type has its own Exceptions section?
- A . Thread Prevention
- B . Access Control
- C . Threat Emulation
- D . Desktop Security
A
Explanation:
The Exceptions Groups pane lets you define exception groups. When necessary, you can create exception groups to use in the Rule Base. An exception group contains one or more defined exceptions. This option facilitates ease-of-use so you do not have to manually define exceptions in multiple rules for commonly required exceptions. You can choose to which rules you want to add exception groups. This means they can be added to some rules and not to others, depending on necessity.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_ThreatPrevention_WebAdmin/82209.htm#o97030
By default, which port does the WebUI listen on?
B. 4434
C. 443
D. 8080
Explanation:
To configure Security Management Server on Gaia:
– Open a browser to the WebUI: https://<Gaia management IP address>
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_Gaia_IUG/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_Gaia_IUG/132120
When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which other Check Point architecture component?
- A . None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself.
- B . SmartConsole
- C . SecureClient
- D . Security Gateway
D
Explanation:
There are different deployment scenarios for Check Point software products.
– Standalone Deployment – The Security Management Server and the Security Gateway are installed
on the same computer or appliance.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Installation_and_Upgrade_GuidewebAdmin/86429.htm
Which options are given on features, when editing a Role on Gaia Platform?
- A . Read/Write, Read Only
- B . Read/Write, Read Only, None
- C . Read/Write, None
- D . Read Only, None
B
Explanation:
Roles
Role-based administration (RBA) lets you create administrative roles for users. With RBA, an administrator can allow Gaia users to access specified features by including those features in a role and assigning that role to users. Each role can include a combination of administrative (read/write) access to some features, monitoring (read-only) access to other features, and no access to other features. You can also specify which access mechanisms (WebUI or the CLI) are available to the user.
Note – When users log in to the WebUI, they see only those features that they have read-only or read/write access to. If they have read-only access to a feature, they can see the settings pages, but cannot change the settings.
Gaia includes these predefined roles:
– adminRole -Gives the user read/write access to all features.
– monitorRole-Gives the user read-only access to all features.
You cannot delete or change the predefined roles.
Note – Do not define a new user for external users. An external user is one that is defined on an authentication server (such as RADIUS or TACACS) and not on the local Gaia system.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_Gaia_AdminWebAdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R77/CP_R77_Gaia_AdminWebAdminGuide/75930
What is the default time length that Hit Count Data is kept?
- A . 3 month
- B . 4 weeks
- C . 12 months
- D . 1 week
A
Explanation:
Reference: https://community.checkpoint.com/t5/General-Topics/What-is-the-default-time-that-HIT-count-data-is-keptin-R80/td-p/33636
Choose the Best place to find a Security Management Server backup file named backup_fw, on a Check Point Appliance.
- A . /var/log/Cpbackup/backups/backup/backup_fw.tgs
- B . /var/log/Cpbackup/backups/backup/backup_fw.tar
- C . /var/log/Cpbackup/backups/backups/backup_fw.tar
- D . /var/log/Cpbackup/backups/backup_fw.tgz
D
Explanation:
Gaia’s Backup feature allows backing up the configuration of the Gaia OS and of the Security Management server database, or restoring a previously saved configuration.
The configuration is saved to a .tgz file in the following directory:
Reference: https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?action=portlets.SearchResultMainAction&eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk91400
With which command can you view the running configuration of Gaia Operating system.
- A . show conf-active
- B . show configuration active
- C . show configuration
- D . show running-configuration
Which of the following is TRUE regarding Gaia command line?
- A . Configuration changes should be done in mgmt_cli and use CLISH for monitoring. Expert mode is used only for OS level tasks.
- B . Configuration changes should be done in expert-mode and CLISH is used for monitoring.
- C . Configuration changes should be done in mgmt-cli and use expert-mode for OS-level tasks.
- D . All configuration changes should be made in CLISH and expert-mode should be used for OS-level tasks.
If there are two administrators logged in at the same time to the SmartConsole, and there are objects locked for editing, what must be done to make them available to other administrators?
- A . Publish or discard the session.
- B . Revert the session.
- C . Save and install the Policy.
- D . Delete older versions of database.
A
Explanation:
To make changes available to all administrators, and to unlock the objects and rules that are being edited, the administrator must publish the session. To make your changes available to other administrators, and to save the database before installing a policy, you must publish the session. When you publish a session, a new database version is created. When you select Install Policy, you are prompted to publish all unpublished changes. You cannot install a policy if the included changes are not published.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/126197
Which one of the following is the preferred licensing model?
- A . Local licensing because it ties the package license to the IP-address of the gateway and has no dependency of the Security Management Server.
- B . Central licensing because it ties the package license to the IP-address of the Security Management Server and has no dependency of the gateway.
- C . Local licensing because it ties the package license to the MAC-address of the gateway management interface and has no Security Management Server dependency.
- D . Central licensing because it ties the package license to the MAC-address of the Security Management Server Mgmt-interface and has no dependency of the gateway.
B
Explanation:
Central License A Central License is a license attached to the Security Management server IP address, rather than the gateway IP address.
The benefits of a Central License are:
– Only one IP address is needed for all licenses.
– A license can be taken from one gateway and given to another.
– The new license remains valid when changing the gateway IP address. There is no need to create and
install a new license.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Installation_and_Upgrade_GuidewebAdmin/13128.htm#o13527
Tom has been tasked to install Check Point R80 in a distributed deployment. Before Tom installs the systems this way, how many machines will he need if he does NOT include a SmartConsole machine in his calculations?
- A . One machine, but it needs to be installed using SecurePlatform for compatibility purposes.
- B . One machine
- C . Two machines
- D . Three machines
C
Explanation:
One for Security Management Server and the other one for the Security Gateway.
A new license should be generated and installed in all of the following situations EXCEPT when ________ .
- A . The license is attached to the wrong Security Gateway
- B . The existing license expires
- C . The license is upgraded
- D . The IP address of the Security Management or Security Gateway has changed
A
Explanation:
There is no need to generate new license in this situation, just need to detach license from wrong Security Gateway and attach it to the right one.
What is the default shell for the command line interface?
- A . Expert
- B . Clish
- C . Admin
- D . Normal
B
Explanation:
The default shell of the CLI is called clish Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Gaia_WebAdmin/75697.htm
When you upload a package or license to the appropriate repository in SmartUpdate, where is the package or license stored
- A . Security Gateway
- B . Check Point user center
- C . Security Management Server
- D . SmartConsole installed device
C
Explanation:
SmartUpdate installs two repositories on the Security Management server:
– License & Contract Repository, which is stored on all platforms in the directory $FWDIRconf.
– Package Repository, which is stored:
– on Windows machines in C:SUroot.
– on UNIX machines in /var/suroot.
The Package Repository requires a separate license, in addition to the license for the Security Management server. This license should stipulate the number of nodes that can be managed in the Package Repository.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Installation_and_Upgrade_Guide-webAdmin/13128.htm#o13527
The tool _______ generates a R80 Security Gateway configuration report.
- A . infoCP
- B . infoview
- C . cpinfo
- D . fw cpinfo
C
Explanation:
CPInfo is an auto-updatable utility that collects diagnostics data on a customer’s machine at the time of execution and uploads it to Check Point servers (it replaces the standalone cp_uploader utility for uploading files to Check Point servers). The CPinfo output file allows analyzing customer setups from a remote location. Check Point support engineers can open the CPinfo file in a demo mode, while viewing actual customer Security Policies and Objects. This allows the in-depth analysis of customer’s configuration and environment settings. When contacting Check Point Support, collect the cpinfo files from the Security Management server and Security Gateways involved in your case.
Reference: https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk92739
Which of the following commands can be used to remove site-to-site IPSEC Security Associations (SA)?
- A . vpn tu
- B . vpn ipsec remove -l
- C . vpn debug ipsec
- D . fw ipsec tu
A
Explanation:
vpn tu
Description Launch the TunnelUtil tool which is used to control VPN tunnels.
Usage vpn tu
vpn tunnelutil
Example vpn tu
Output
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_CLI_WebAdmin/12467.htm#o12627
Which of the following is NOT an authentication scheme used for accounts created through SmartConsole?
- A . Security questions
- B . Check Point password
- C . SecurID
- D . RADIUS
A
Explanation:
Authentication Schemes:
– Check Point Password
– Operating System Password
– RADIUS
– SecurID
– TACAS
– Undefined
If a user with an undefined authentication scheme is matched to a Security Rule with some form of authentication, access is always denied.
Using the SmartConsole, which pre-defined Permission Profile should be assigned to an administrator that requires full access to audit all configurations without modifying them?
- A . Editor
- B . Read Only All
- C . Super User
- D . Full Access
B
Explanation:
To create a new permission profile:
Using the SmartConsole, which pre-defined Permission Profile should be assigned to an administrator that requires full access to audit all configurations without modifying them?
- A . Editor
- B . Read Only All
- C . Super User
- D . Full Access
B
Explanation:
To create a new permission profile:
Using the SmartConsole, which pre-defined Permission Profile should be assigned to an administrator that requires full access to audit all configurations without modifying them?
- A . Editor
- B . Read Only All
- C . Super User
- D . Full Access
B
Explanation:
To create a new permission profile:
Using the SmartConsole, which pre-defined Permission Profile should be assigned to an administrator that requires full access to audit all configurations without modifying them?
- A . Editor
- B . Read Only All
- C . Super User
- D . Full Access
B
Explanation:
To create a new permission profile:
Using the SmartConsole, which pre-defined Permission Profile should be assigned to an administrator that requires full access to audit all configurations without modifying them?
- A . Editor
- B . Read Only All
- C . Super User
- D . Full Access
B
Explanation:
To create a new permission profile:
Using the SmartConsole, which pre-defined Permission Profile should be assigned to an administrator that requires full access to audit all configurations without modifying them?
- A . Editor
- B . Read Only All
- C . Super User
- D . Full Access
B
Explanation:
To create a new permission profile:
Packages and licenses are loaded from all of these sources EXCEPT
- A . Download Center Web site
- B . UserUpdate
- C . User Center
- D . Check Point DVD
B
Explanation:
Packages and licenses are loaded into these repositories from several sources:
– the Download Center web site (packages)
– the Check Point DVD (packages)
– the User Center (licenses)
– by importing a file (packages and licenses)
– by running the cpliccommand line
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Installation_and_Upgrade_GuidewebAdmin/13128.htm
Which of the following technologies extracts detailed information from packets and stores that information in state tables?
- A . INSPECT Engine
- B . Stateful Inspection
- C . Packet Filtering
- D . Application Layer Firewall
B
Explanation:
Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/smb/help/utm1/8.2/7080.htm
On the following graphic, you will find layers of policies.
What is a precedence of traffic inspection for the defined polices?
- A . A packet arrives at the gateway, it is checked against the rules in the networks policy layer and then if Implicit Drop Rule drops the packet, it comes next to IPS layer and then after accepting the packet it passes to Threat Prevention layer.
- B . A packet arrives at the gateway, it is checked against the rules in the networks policy layer and then if there is any rule which accepts the packet, it comes next to IPS layer and then after accepting the packet it passes to Threat Prevention layer
- C . A packet arrives at the gateway, it is checked against the rules in the networks policy layer and then if there is any rule which accepts the packet, it comes next to Threat Prevention layer and then after accepting the packet it passes to IPS layer.
- D . A packet arrives at the gateway, it is checked against the rules in IPS policy layer and then if it is accepted then it comes next to the Network policy layer and then after accepting the packet it passes to Threat Prevention layer.
B
Explanation:
To simplify Policy management, R80 organizes the policy into Policy Layers. A layer is a set of rules, or a Rule Base.
For example, when you upgrade to R80 from earlier versions:
– Gateways that have the Firewall and the Application Control Software Blades enabled will have their
Access Control Policy split into two ordered layers: Network and Applications.
When the gateway matches a rule in a layer, it starts to evaluate the rules in the next layer.
– Gateways that have the IPS and Threat Emulation Software Blades enabled will have their Threat Prevention policies split into two parallel layers: IPS and Threat Prevention. All layers are evaluated in parallel
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/126197
Tina is a new administrator who is currently reviewing the new Check Point R80 Management console interface.
In the Gateways view, she is reviewing the Summary screen as in the screenshot below.
What as an ‘Open Server’?
- A . Check Point software deployed on a non-Check Point appliance.
- B . The Open Server Consortium approved Server Hardware used for the purpose of Security and Availability.
- C . A Check Point Management Server deployed using the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) Server and Security deployment model.
- D . A Check Point Management Server software using the Open SSL.
A
Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Installation_and_Upgrade_GuidewebAdmin/index.html
Choose what BEST describes the Policy Layer Traffic Inspection.
- A . If a packet does not match any of the inline layers, the matching continues to the next Layer.
- B . If a packet matches an inline layer, it will continue matching the next layer.
- C . If a packet does not match any of the inline layers, the packet will be matched against the Implicit Clean-up Rule.
- D . If a packet does not match a Network Policy Layer, the matching continues to its inline layer.
B
Explanation:
Reference: https://community.checkpoint.com/thread/1092
What are the three conflict resolution rules in the Threat Prevention Policy Layers?
- A . Conflict on action, conflict on exception, and conflict on settings
- B . Conflict on scope, conflict on settings, and conflict on exception
- C . Conflict on settings, conflict on address, and conflict on exception
- D . Conflict on action, conflict on destination, and conflict on settings
What does the “unknown” SIC status shown on SmartConsole mean?
- A . The SMS can contact the Security Gateway but cannot establish Secure Internal Communication.
- B . SIC activation key requires a reset.
- C . The SIC activation key is not known by any administrator.
- D . There is no connection between the Security Gateway and SMS.
D
Explanation:
The most typical status is Communicating. Any other status indicates that the SIC communication is problematic. For example, if the SIC status is Unknown then there is no connection between the Gateway and the Security Management server. If the SIC status is Not Communicating, the Security Management server is able to contact the gateway, but SIC communication cannot be established.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_SecMan_WebAdmin/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R76/CP_R76_SecMan_WebAdmin/118037
Kofi, the administrator of the ALPHA Corp network wishes to change the default Gaia WebUI Portal port number currently set on the default HTTPS port.
Which CLISH commands are required to be able to change this TCP port?
- A . set web ssl-port <new port number>
- B . set Gaia-portal port <new port number>
- C . set Gaia-portal https-port <new port number>
- D . set web https-port <new port number>
A
Explanation:
In Clish
Browser-based Authentication sends users to a web page to acquire identities using ________ .
- A . User Directory
- B . Captive Portal and Transparent Kerberos Authentication
- C . Captive Portal
- D . UserCheck
B
Explanation:
To enable Identity Awareness:
Browser-based Authentication sends users to a web page to acquire identities using ________ .
- A . User Directory
- B . Captive Portal and Transparent Kerberos Authentication
- C . Captive Portal
- D . UserCheck
B
Explanation:
To enable Identity Awareness:
Browser-based Authentication sends users to a web page to acquire identities using ________ .
- A . User Directory
- B . Captive Portal and Transparent Kerberos Authentication
- C . Captive Portal
- D . UserCheck
B
Explanation:
To enable Identity Awareness:
Browser-based Authentication sends users to a web page to acquire identities using ________ .
- A . User Directory
- B . Captive Portal and Transparent Kerberos Authentication
- C . Captive Portal
- D . UserCheck
B
Explanation:
To enable Identity Awareness:
Browser-based Authentication sends users to a web page to acquire identities using ________ .
- A . User Directory
- B . Captive Portal and Transparent Kerberos Authentication
- C . Captive Portal
- D . UserCheck
B
Explanation:
To enable Identity Awareness:
Browser-based Authentication sends users to a web page to acquire identities using ________ .
- A . User Directory
- B . Captive Portal and Transparent Kerberos Authentication
- C . Captive Portal
- D . UserCheck
B
Explanation:
To enable Identity Awareness:
Which default Gaia user has full read/write access?
- A . Monitor
- B . Altuser
- C . Administrator
- D . Superuser
The _________ collects logs and sends them to the _________ .
- A . Log server; security management server
- B . Log server; Security Gateway
- C . Security management server; Security Gateway
- D . Security Gateways; log server
The security Gateway is installed on GAiA R80. The default port for the WEB User Interface is _______ .
- A . TCP 18211
- B . TCP 257
- C . TCP 4433
- D . TCP 443
To build an effective Security Policy, use a ________ and _______ rule.
- A . Cleanup; stealth
- B . Stealth; implicit
- C . Cleanup; default
- D . Implicit; explicit
Which type of Check Point license is tied to the IP address of a specific Security Gateway and cannot be transferred to a gateway that has a different IP address?
- A . Central
- B . Corporate
- C . Formal
- D . Local
Which utility shows the security gateway general system information statistics like operating system information and resource usage, and individual software blade statistics of VPN, Identity Awareness and DLP?
- A . cpconfig
- B . fw ctl pstat
- C . cpview
- D . fw ctl multik stat
C
Explanation:
CPView Utility is a text based built-in utility that can be run (‘cpview’ command) on Security Gateway /Security Management Server /Multi-Domain Security Management Server. CPView Utility shows statistical data that contain both general system information (CPU, Memory, Disk space) and information for different Software Blades (only on Security Gateway). The data is continuously updated in easy to access views.
Reference: https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk101878
The following graphic shows:
- A . View from SmartLog for logs initiated from source address 10.1.1.202
- B . View from SmartView Tracker for logs of destination address 10.1.1.202
- C . View from SmartView Tracker for logs initiated from source address 10.1.1.202
- D . View from SmartView Monitor for logs initiated from source address 10.1.1.202
In R80, Unified Policy is a combination of
- A . Access control policy, QoS Policy, Desktop Security Policy and endpoint policy.
- B . Access control policy, QoS Policy, Desktop Security Policy and Threat Prevention Policy.
- C . Firewall policy, address Translation and application and URL filtering, QoS Policy, Desktop Security Policy and Threat Prevention Policy.
- D . Access control policy, QoS Policy, Desktop Security Policy and VPN policy.
D
Explanation:
D is the best answer given the choices.Unified Policy
In R80 the Access Control policy unifies the policies of these pre-R80 Software Blades:
– Firewall and VPN
– Application Control and URL Filtering
– Identity Awareness
– Data Awareness
– Mobile Access
– Security Zones
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/126197&anchor=o129934
The command __________ provides the most complete restoration of a R80 configuration.
- A . upgrade_import
- B . cpconfig
- C . fwm dbimport -p <export file>
- D . cpinfo -recover
A
Explanation:
(Should be "migrate import") "migrate import" Restores backed up configuration for R80 version, in previous versions the command was " upgrade_import".
The Gaia operating system supports which routing protocols?
- A . BGP, OSPF, RIP
- B . BGP, OSPF, EIGRP, PIM, IGMP
- C . BGP, OSPF, RIP, PIM, IGMP
- D . BGP, OSPF, RIP, EIGRP
A
Explanation:
The Advanced Routing Suite
The Advanced Routing Suite CLI is available as part of the Advanced Networking Software Blade. For organizations looking to implement scalable, fault-tolerant, secure networks, the Advanced Networking blade enables them to run industry-standard dynamic routing protocols including BGP, OSPF, RIPv1, and RIPv2 on security gateways. OSPF, RIPv1, and RIPv2 enable dynamic routing over a single autonomous system―like a single department, company, or service provider―to avoid network failures. BGP provides dynamic routing support across more complex networks involving multiple autonomous systems―such as when a company uses two service providers or divides a network into multiple areas with different administrators responsible for the performance of each.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_SecurePlatform_AdvancedRouting_WebAdmin/html_frameset.htm
Joey wants to configure NTP on R80 Security Management Server. He decided to do this via WebUI.
What is the correct IP address and default port to access the Web UI for Gaia platform via browser?
- A . https://<Device_IP_Address>
- B . https://<Device_IP_Address>:443
- C . https://<Device_IP_Address>:10000
- D . https://<Device_IP_Address>:4434
B
Explanation:
Access to Web UI Gaia administration interface, initiate a connection from a browser to the default administration IP address: Logging in to the WebUI
Logging in
To log in to the WebUI:
Joey wants to configure NTP on R80 Security Management Server. He decided to do this via WebUI.
What is the correct IP address and default port to access the Web UI for Gaia platform via browser?
- A . https://<Device_IP_Address>
- B . https://<Device_IP_Address>:443
- C . https://<Device_IP_Address>:10000
- D . https://<Device_IP_Address>:4434
B
Explanation:
Access to Web UI Gaia administration interface, initiate a connection from a browser to the default administration IP address: Logging in to the WebUI
Logging in
To log in to the WebUI:
Joey wants to configure NTP on R80 Security Management Server. He decided to do this via WebUI.
What is the correct IP address and default port to access the Web UI for Gaia platform via browser?
- A . https://<Device_IP_Address>
- B . https://<Device_IP_Address>:443
- C . https://<Device_IP_Address>:10000
- D . https://<Device_IP_Address>:4434
B
Explanation:
Access to Web UI Gaia administration interface, initiate a connection from a browser to the default administration IP address: Logging in to the WebUI
Logging in
To log in to the WebUI:
Which application should you use to install a contract file?
- A . SmartView Monitor
- B . WebUI
- C . SmartUpdate
- D . SmartProvisioning
C
Explanation:
Using SmartUpdate: If you already use an NGX R65 (or higher) Security Management / Provider-1 / Multi-Domain Management Server, SmartUpdate allows you to import the service contract file that you have downloaded in Step #3.
Open SmartUpdate and from the Launch Menu select ‘Licenses & Contracts’ -> ‘Update Contracts’ -> ‘From File…’ and provide the path to the file you have downloaded in Step #3:
Note: If SmartUpdate is connected to the Internet, you can download the service contract file directly from the UserCenter without going through the download and import steps.
Reference: https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk33089
Which feature is NOT provided by all Check Point Mobile Access solutions?
- A . Support for IPv6
- B . Granular access control
- C . Strong user authentication
- D . Secure connectivity
A
Explanation:
Types of Solutions
All of Check Point’s Remote Access solutions provide:
– Enterprise-grade, secure connectivity to corporate resources.
– Strong user authentication.
– Granular access control.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_VPN_AdminGuide/83586.htm
You work as a security administrator for a large company. CSO of your company has attended a security conference where he has learnt how hackers constantly modify their strategies and techniques to evade detection and reach corporate resources. He wants to make sure that his company has the right protections in place. Check Point has been selected for the security vendor.
Which Check Point products protects BEST against malware and zero-day attacks while ensuring quick delivery of safe content to your users?
- A . IPS and Application Control
- B . IPS, anti-virus and anti-bot
- C . IPS, anti-virus and e-mail security
- D . SandBlast
D
Explanation:
SandBlast Zero-Day Protection
Hackers constantly modify their strategies and techniques to evade detection and reach corporate resources. Zero-day exploit protection from Check Point provides a deeper level of inspection so you can prevent more malware and zero-day attacks, while ensuring quick delivery of safe content to your users.
Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/products-solutions/zero-day-protection/
Each cluster has __________ interfaces.
- A . Five
- B . Two
- C . Three
- D . Four
C
Explanation:
Each cluster member has three interfaces: one external interface, one internal interface, and one for synchronization. Cluster member interfaces facing in each direction are connected via a switch, router, or VLAN switch.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_ClusterXL_AdminGuide/7292.htm
What are the three essential components of the Check Point Security Management Architecture?
- A . SmartConsole, Security Management Server, Security Gateway
- B . SmartConsole, SmartUpdate, Security Gateway
- C . Security Management Server, Security Gateway, Command Line Interface
- D . WebUI, SmartConsole, Security Gateway
A
Explanation:
Deployments
Basic deployments:
– Standalone deployment – Security Gateway and the Security Management server are installed on the
same machine.
– Distributed deployment – Security Gateway and the Security Management server are installed on different machines.
Assume an environment with gateways on different sites. Each Security Gateway connects to the Internet on one side, and to a LAN on the other.
You can create a Virtual Private Network (VPN) between the two Security Gateways, to secure all communication between them.
The Security Management server is installed in the LAN, and is protected by a Security Gateway. The Security Management server manages the Security Gateways and lets remote users connect securely to the corporate network. SmartDashboard can be installed on the Security Management server or another computer.
There can be other OPSEC-partner modules (for example, an Anti-Virus Server) to complete the network security with the Security Management server and its Security Gateways.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_SecurityManagement_WebAdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R77/CP_R77_SecurityManagement_WebAdminGuide/118037