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1. Which of the following is not a legitimate purpose of an investigation for employee misconduct?

2. The investigation's best approach to questioning relies on the following:

3. Some facts about drug users that may assist in recognizing problem areas during a drug investigation are set forth as follows. Indicate the one that is erroneous.

4. A craving for a drug is exhibited often by the following:

5. A narcotic addict is sometimes called:

6. One whose sexual desires are directed to both men and women is known as a:

7. When it is necessary to question a witness about sexual deviation all of the following should be avoided except:

8. In conducting gambling investigations, the security officer should

9. Which of the following investigative resources should not normally be used in a gambling investigation conducted by a proprietary investigative force?

10. In an investigation concerning regulations of common carriers in interstate commerce or investigation of railroad accidents, a good source of information would be the:

11. In investigating homicide and suicide, the best source of information would probably be the:

12. To obtain information concerning marriage licenses, an investigator would contact the:

13. In conducting a "claim" investigation where the claim is a serious one and where there is cause for doubt in connection with the loss or claim, the type of investigation to be used is:

14. One of the following is not one of the desired characteristics of a statement obtained during a claim investigation:

15. A sudden, violent, and noisy eruption, outburst, or discharge by material acted upon with force, such as fire, shock, or electrical charge, which causes the material, either solid or liquid, to convert into gas and violently expand or burst is the definition of:

16. A yellow-colored crystalline solid pertains to the following explosive:

17. Which of the following is not a high explosive?

18. Which of the following could be considered a source of information?

19. One of the following is not considered an element of the common law crime of arson:

20. Which of the following is not usually applicable to a confession?

21. Which of the following is not a requirement for a successful undercover investigation?

22. If it is necessary to terminate an undercover investigation, one of the following actions should not be done:

23. The principal item of expense in an investigations budget will be:

24. The single most important administrative control in handling investigations is:

25. The frequency of a reinvestigation of the "financial lifestyle" inquiry should generally be:

26. In conducting interviews during an investigation concerning "financial lifestyle," the investigator should more appropriately tell the person being interviewed that the employee is:

27. One of the following is not prohibited by the Federal Civil Rights Act during an investigation:

28. The age discrimination in the Employment Act of 1967 bans discrimination against workers or applicants who are:

29. Questions on an application blank or field investigative inquiries that deal with a union membership or affiliation should be avoided as they may lead to charges that constitute violations of:

30. As a general rule the number of consecutive years of employment or no employment to be verified preceding the date of investigation is:

31. Any investigation containing unfavorable, information should be retained in a file for a period of not less than:

32. A question on an application form inquiring about prior arrests is illegal as a violation of:

33. The rule that states that approximately one in ten applications will have major omissions, which will require going back to the applicant, is called:

34. Who of the following should be interviewed last or near the end of an investigation under usual circumstances?

35. If the interviewee during an investigation is hostile, it is preferable to conduct the interview at:

36. Which of the following characterizations regarding investigative surveillance is not true?

37. The process whereby communications are intercepted or recorded is known as:

38. In situations in which at least one party to a communication is aware and willing that the recording of his or her conversation with another person or persons is being made, it is:

39. The specific emplacement of an agent or operative in an environment or situation in which the agent's true role is unknown with the purpose of developing information to be used later in a criminal investigation is known as:

40. It is becoming increasingly more difficult to do a good preemployment background investigation because of:

41. Which of the following is an advantage of having investigation conducted by in-house security staff?

42. The most widely recognized and best-known instrument designed to detect deception is:

43. The most important factor in the use of a polygraph is:

44. Which of the following is not a good procedure with regard to the use of the polygraph by investigators?

45. The U.S. Army trains its polygraph operators as well as those from other U.S. agencies at:

46. A device used to detect deception through stress recorded by voice modulations is known as (a):

47. Which of the following characteristics relate to the psychological stress analyzer?

48. The effectiveness of the voice analyzer in accurately detecting deception is:

49. Identify the Act that basically prohibits discrimination, discharge, failure or refusal to hire, etc., on any of the grounds of race, color, religion, sex, or national origin:

50. Under court interpretations of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, which of the following are not allowed during investigations?

51. Interviews should be conducted:

52. The witness's idea of the suspect, described in words, is called:

53. The most important qualification of a good undercover operator is:

54. The main function of the private security agent is to:

55. The person best suited for physical surveillance work is one who:

56. In conducting a polygraph, it is important to note that the most impoltant measure of stress is recorded by:

57. The pre-testing interview prior to the polygraph examination itself is for the purpose of:

58. On average, a polygraph examination takes:

59. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the polygraph?

60. Persons are protected from abuses of polygraph by:

61. The best way to verify an applicant's statements is:

62. Which of the following should not be included in the written investigative report of an applicant?

63. Of all those with mental disorders, the most dangerous subject to handle is:

64. Mental disorders may be determined by symptoms.

Which of the following is such a symptom?

65. In handling a mentally disturbed person, one should:

66. Identification and access control systems have the widest application of:

67. The performance requirements of any trustworthy system of identification includes:

68. A general defect of manual identification systems is that:

69. Any formula, pattern, device, or compilation of information that is used in one's business and that gives you an opportunity to gain an advantage over competitors who do not use it or know about it is:

70. What is most likely the main reason for loss of sensitive information?

71. Which of the following should be part of an effective information security program?

72. The primary tool of pre-employment screening is the:

73. Which of the following is generally not allowed to be disclosed on an employment questionnaire?

74. To be within the definition of a trade secret, sensitive information must meet which of the following criteria?

75. According to the "restatement of the law of torts," a trade secret is:

76. A trade secret may be:

77. The characteristics of a trade secret as compared with other confidential information are:

78. Which of the following is generally not true in regard to trade secrets?

79. In regard to a trade secret, it may be decided that its disclosure by another was innocent, rather than wrongful, even in the case where the person making the disclosure really was guilty of malice or wrong intent.

This situation may occur when:

80. Proprietary information is:

81. The class of person under a duty to safeguard a proprietary secret is known as a(n):

82. It is important for employees to know whether confidential information is a trade secret, or some other confidential material, because:

83. Which of the following is not a correct statement as a general rule involving the protection of proprietary information?

84. To effectively involve the law for the protection of sensitive information, the owner of the proprietary information must be able to show "objective indications of attempts to protect secrecy."

Which of the following has been recognized in the past as such an indication?

85. Which of the following should be made part of a proprietary. information protection program?

86. In designing a proprietary information protection program, the area of greatest vulnerability is:

87. In devising proprietary information procedures, which of the following is considered to be a main area of paper or document vulnerability?

88. When a loss of proprietary information is discovered, which of the following steps should be taken first?

89. Which of the following would not be considered in the "trade secret" category?

90. Litigations concerning former employees involving trade secrets have some problems.

Which of the following is considered to be such a problem?

91. A "trash cover" is:

92. Sound waves too high in frequency to be heard by the human ear, generally above 20 kHz, are known as:

93. The process of combining a number of transmission into one composite signal to be sent over one link is called:

94. Which of the following applies to the laser as a means of communication?

95. Which of the following is not correct in regard to microwave transmissions?

96. Electromagnetic radiation is detectable electromagnetic energy that is generated by electronic information processing devices.

Which' of the following is used to protect very sensitive equipment?

97. The practice of preventing unauthorized persons from gaining information by analyzing electromagnetic emanations from electronic equipment is often termed:

98. A term used to indicate a method of disguising information so that it is unintelligible to those who should not obtain it is:

99. The most secure scrambler in common use is the:

100. The method used to monitor telephone calls by providing a record of all numbers dialed from a particular phone is called:

101. A small hidden microphone and a radio transmitter are generally known as:

102. A specially constructed microphone attached directly to an object or surface to be protected, which responds only when the protected object or surface is disturbed, is known as:

103. A microphone with a disklike attachment that is used for listening to audio from great distances is known as a(n):

104. A microphone that is installed on a common wall adjacent to the target area when it is impractical or impossible to enter the target area is known as a:

105. Which method of protection against telephone line eavesdropping is most reliable?

106. The unauthorized acquisition or dissemination by an employee of confidential data critical to his or her employer is known as:

107. The term "eavesdropping" refers to:

108. Which of the following methods could be used as a form of eavesdropping using a telephone instrument?

109. A microphone that requires no power source, is very small, and is difficult to detect has the characteristics of a(n):

110. Installation of a wireless radio eavesdropping device usually consists of the following:

111. The frequency range best suited for a wireless microphone because it provides better security and lower interference is:

112. The control software of a private board exchange (PBX) can be accessed and compromised by calling the telephone number of a device on the PBX from a computer and modem.

The name of this PBX device is the:

113. Which of the following is not true regarding electronic eavesdropping?

114. The first federal legislation that attempted to regulate electronic surveillance in the United States was enacted by Congress in:

115. The manufacture, distribution, possession, and advertising of wire or oral communication interception devices is prohibited by:

116. The criminal punishment for violation of the wiretapping phases of the Omnibus Crime Control and Safe Streets Act of 1968 is:

117. Which of the following is not a requirement under the Omnibus Crime Control and Safe Streets Act of 1968 before a court may give permission for an electronic surveillance?

118. Which of the following is provided for by the Omnibus Crime Control and Safe Streets Act of 1968?

119. Title III of the Omnibus Crime Control and Safe Streets Act of 1968 requires that an approval for electronic surveillance must be obtained from the:

120. Criminal violations involving theft of trade secrets could be covered by:

121. The public statute passed to protect personal information in possession of federal agencies is:

122. The Privacy Act of 1974 provides which of the following safeguards?

123. Which of the following would not be permitted to review a student's record according to the Family Educational Rights and the Privacy Act of 1974?

124. Which of the following characteristics pertains to a good information management program?

125. What are the three most common methods of information loss to be guarded against?

126. The elements of an information security program include:

127. Which of the following statements is not true in regard to an information security program?

128. Vital records normally constitute what percentage of the company's total records?

129. Which of the following is considered to be an approved method of protecting vital records?

130. The term "social engineering" is:

131. Competitive intelligence gathering is a legitimate activity that is engaged in by many firms throughout the world.

The most important function of competitive intelligence is to:

132. The Secretary of Defense is not authorized to act on behalf of the following agency or department in rendering industrial security services:

133. The overall policy guidance for the Defense Industrial Security Program is provided by:

134. The Defense Industrial Security Program on behalf of all user agencies is administered by the:

135. The executive order that applies to classified information is:

136. A controlled area established to safeguard classified material that, because of its size or nature, cannot be adequately protected by other prescribed safeguards is termed to be:

137. The DIS regional office under the support of the director of industrial security that has jurisdiction over the geographical area in which a facility is located is called the:

138. Technical and intelligence information derived from foreign communications by other than the intended recipient is known as:

139. The designation that should be applied to information or material showing unauthorized disclosure that could reasonably be expected to cause damage to national security is:

140. Technical information used for training, maintenance, and inspection of classified military munitions of war would be classified as:

141. A designation or marking that identifies classified operational keying material and that indicates the material requiring special consideration with respect to access, storage, and handling is:

142. The portion of internal security that is concerned with the protection of classified information in the hands of U.S. industry is called:

143. The result of any system of administrative policies and procedures for identifying, controlling, and protecting from unauthorized disclosure of information and is authorized by executive order or statute is called:

144. An administrative determination that an individual is eligible for access to classified information is:

145. The combinations to safes, containers, and vaults should be changed at intervals of:

146. The designation that shall be applied only to information or material that unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause serious damage to national security is:

147. Information regarding the revelation of significant military plans or intelligence operations should be classified as:

148. The designation that should only be applied to information or material that unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause exceptionally grave damage to national security is:

149. Information that could lead to the compromise of vital national defense plans or complex cryptologic and communications intelligence systems should be classified:

150. Regulations of the Department of Defense require that the contractor shall establish such procedures as are necessary to ensure that any employee discovering the loss, compromise, or suspected compromise of classified information outside a facility promptly reports to:

151. Defense Department regulations require the identification card of a defense contractor to include a:

152. Which of the following should definitely not appear on the identification card of employees of defense contractors?

153. No invitation, written or oral, shall be given to a foreign national or to a representative of a foreign interest to attend any session of a meeting sponsored by a Department of Defense activity until:

154. The basic document for conveying to the contractor the classification and declassification specifications for a classified contract is:

155. A document that is classified "confidential" shall exhibit the marking at:

156. Unclassified material should be marked:

157. An unclassified document that is attached to a classified document should have a notation stating:

158. Whenever classified information is downgraded, declassified, or upgraded, the material shall be promptly and conspicuously marked to indicate:

159. Foreign classified material should be marked in accordance with instructions received from:

160. Department of Defense regulations regarding the protection of classified information requires that defense contractors maintain accountability of top secret information for a minimum time of:

161. When not in use, top secret information should be stored in a:

162. Which of the following is prohibited by the Department of Defense regulations regarding the method of transmitting top secret information outside a facility?

163. Secret information can be transmitted by which of the following means according to Department of Defense regulations?

164. Department of Defense regulations indicate that destruction of classified information can be accomplished by:

165. Which of the following has the appropriate security clearances in the destruction of top secret and secret information according to Department of Defense regulations?

166. According to Department of Defense regulations, if classified material is removed from the facility for destruction, it should be destroyed:

167. According to Department of Defense regulations, to be eligible for a personnel security clearance for confidential information, the following age must be attained:

168. According to Department of Defense regulations, the security clearance of a contractual employee shall be effective for:

169. According to Department of Defense regulations, the following are not eligible for a personnel security clearance:

170. A facility security clearance should not be granted to contractor activities:

171. For personnel security clearances required in connection with a facility security clearance, applications shall be submitted to the:

172. According to Department of Defense regulations, "interim" personnel security clearances must be approved by the:

173. Department of Defense regulations require initial approval in writing prior to processing any classified information in an ADP system by which of the following authorities:

174. An ADP system that operates in a manner where all users with access to the system have both a security clearance and a need to-know status for all classified information that is in the system is known as:

175. An ADP system that operates in a manner in which all users with access to the system who have a security clearance for the highest classification and most restrictive types of information in the system is known as:

176. An ADP system that operates in a manner in which at least some of the users with access to the system have neither a security clearance nor a need-to-know status for all classified information that is in the system, but in a manner that the cognizant security officer or a higher authority has determined that the necessary degree of security has been achieved and maintained, is known as:

177. The ADP system security supervisor or designee should review the audit trail logs at least:

178. The Department of Defense Personnel Security Questionnaire (Industrial) Form is:

179. According to Department of Defense regulations, which of the following documents are not acceptable proof of U.S. citizenship concerning the safeguarding of classified information?

180. Of the following substance schedules, which has no curr ent accepted medical use?

181. Of the following substance schedules, which one has an accepted medical use in treatment and a high potential for abuse that could lead to severe psychological and physical dependence?

182. Of the following substance schedules, which one has an accepted medical use in treatment and a low potential for abuse with limited psychological and physical dependence when compared to other substances and drugs?

183. The Controlled Substances Act has imposed certain record-keeping requirements on those involved in the manufacturing, purchasing, and distribution of substances under the Act.

Which of the following is not one of the specific requirements?

184. The primary federal law that provides the legal foundation for the current federal strategy of reducing the consumption of illicit drugs is:

185. Which of the following is correct in the regulatory requirements of Schedule V substances under the Controlled Substances Act?

186. The Federal Act mandates that for simple possession of any controlled substance the first offense is:

187. The federal trafficking penalty for a Schedule I narcotic that is the first offense is:

188. Which of the following is not correct regarding narcotics?

189. Which of the following is not designated as a narcotic?

190. The main source of nonsynthetic narcotics is:

191. Narcotics are known by a number of trade names. One of the trade names is:

192. Which of the following is a characteristic of morphine?

193. Which naturally occurring narcotic is by far the most widely used, and is often combined with other products such as aspirin or Tylenol?

194. Watery eyes, runny, nose, yawning, loss of appetite, irritability, tremors, panic, chills and sweating, cramps, and nausea would indicate withdrawal symptoms of:

195. Which of the following is a correct statement pertaining to heroin?

196. Which of the following does not apply to synthetic narcotics?

197. Which of the following is not a correct statement regarding methadone?

198. Which of the following drugs is classified as a "depressant" under the Controlled Substances Act?

199. Cold and clammy skin, dilated pupils, shallow breathing, and 2. weak and rapid pulse are overdose symptoms resulting from which of the following substances?

200. Which of the following is not correct pertaining to the use of depressants?

201. Which of the following substances would be classified as a depressant under the

Controlled Substance Act?

202. Depressants of various types are included in Schedules II, III, and IV of the Controlled Substances Act.

Which of the following does not apply to the use of depressants?

203. Which of the following withdrawal characteristics can result from the abrupt cessation or reduction of high-dose depressant usage?

204. Which of the following is not a correct statement regarding chloral hydrate?

205. Which of the following characteristics describes barbiturates?

206. Barbiturates have about 2500 derivatives of barbituric acid and are known by a variety of names.

Which of the following is another name for a barbiturate?

207. Which of the following is not another name for a barbiturate?

208. Which of the following identifies the depressant methaqualone?

209. Which of the following is not another name for methaqualone?

210. Which of the following describes meprobamate?

211. Which of the following is not a brand name of meprobamate?

212. Which of the following is not correct with regard to benzodiazepine?

213. Which of the following is a member of the benzodiazepine group known in the United States?

214. Excitation, increased alertness, euphoria, increased pulse rate and blood pressure, insomnia, and loss of appetite are symptoms of:

215. All of the following are controlled substances grouped as stimulants except:

216. Which of the following characteristics describes stimulants as a controlled substance?

217. Which of the following is not known as a stimulant?

218. Cocaine is derived from which of the following?

219. Which of the following is a correct statement regarding illicit cocaine?

220. Cocaine is placed in which of the following controlled substance schedules?

221. Which of the following is not known as an amphetamine?

222. Which of the following substances would induce poor perception of time and distance?

223. Which of the following does not describe hallucinogens?

224. Which one of the following substances is not an hallucinogen?

225. The hallucinogen mescaline is derived from:

226. Which of the following statements is correct regarding LSD?

227. According to a consensus of drug treatment professionals, the drug that now poses a greater risk to the user than any other drug of abuse is:

228. Which of the following is not a true statement in regard to phencyclidine?

229. Marijuana comes from:

230. Marijuana and other cannabis products are usually administered by:

231. Marijuana is known by which of the following names?

232. Hashish mainly comes from:

233. The physiological adaptation of the body to the presence of a dmg whereby the body develops a continuing need for the dmg is known as:

234. The condition whereby a user must keep increasing the dosage to maintain the same effect is known as:

235. The condition whereby the user of a substance develops an attachment to the dmg because of the substance's ability to satisfy some emotional or personality need of the user is known as:

236. The state of periodic or chronic intoxication produced by the repeated consumption of a substance is known as:

237. What process does a security manager use in establishing priorities in the protection of assets?

238. The degree of protection desired in any installation is predicated on an analysis of which of the following?

239. A critical on-site examination and analysis of a facility to ascertain the present security status and to identify deficiencies or excesses in determining the protection needed to make recommendations to improve overall security is the definition of a(n):

240. What is a key consideration in a risk analysis or risk assessment process?

241. From a security perspective, what is the first factor to be considered in facility construction?

242. Which of the following is not correct regarding a security education program?

243. The most vulnerable link in any identification system is:

244. Which of the following is not true in regard to establishing and identifying personnel to control movement?

245. The use of a simple codeword or phrase during a normal conversation to alert other security personnel that an authorized person has been forced to vouch for an unauthorized individual is termed:

246. The practice of having at least two authorized persons, each capable of detecting incorrect or unauthorized procedures with respect to the task being performed, present during any operation that affords access to a sensitive area is referred to as a(n):

247. The designation and establishment of "restricted areas" according to army regulations is performed by the:

248. Which of the following is not a known advantage of the establishment of restricted areas?

249. A restricted area containing a security interest or other sensitive matter, which uncontrolled movement can permit access to the security interest or sensitive matter, but within which access may be prevented by security escort and other internal restrictions and controls, is called a(n):

250. What type of fencing is generally used for protection of limited and exclusion areas?

251. Excluding the top guard, a chain-link fence for general security purposes should be:

252. In a chain-link fence with mesh openings for general security purposes, the openings should be no larger than:

253. Excluding the top guard, standard barbed-wire fencing that is intended to prevent human trespassing should not be less than:

254. The federal specification regarding standard barbed-wire fencing that is twisted and double- strand is that it should be:

255. A standard barbed-wire, twisted, double-strand fence has __ point barbs spaced an equal distance apart.

256. The distance in a barbed-wire fence should not exceed:

257. Top-guard supporting arms should be permanently affixed to the top of the fence 'posts to increase the overall height of the fence by at least:

258. A top guard must consist of:

259. How many inches apa1t should strands of barbed wire or tape used as a top guard on a fence be spaced?

260. Unavoidable drainage ditches, culverts, vents, ducts, and other openings should be protected by securely fastened welded-bar grills when they have a cross-sectional area greater than:

261. Between the perimeter barrier and exterior structures should be a clear zone covering:

262. As a general rule, between the perimeter barrier and structures within the protected area, except when a building is a part of the perimeter barrier, there should be a clear zone of at least:

263. Manhole covers ________ inches or more in diameter should be secured to prevent unauthorized openings.

264. Which of the following characteristics of protective lighting is incorrect?

265. Measured horizontally 6 inches above ground level and at least 30 feet outside the exclusion area to barrier, the perimeter band of lighting must provide a minimum intensity of:

266. Which of the following principles of protective lighting is not correct?

267. Lighting units of four general types are used for protective lighting.

Which of the following is not used?

268. 'What is the most common protective lighting system that consists of a series of fixed luminaries arranged to flood a given area during the hours of darkness with overlapping cones of light?

269. Piers and docks located on an installation should be safeguarded by illuminating both water approaches and the pier areA.

Decks on open piers should be illuminated to at least:

270. Water approaches that extend to 100 feet from the pier should be illuminated to at least:

271. U.S. Army illumination intensity minimums for lighting the perimeter of a restricted area is:

272. What agency should be consulted before installing protective lighting adjacent to navigable waters?

273. The intrusion detection system in which a pattern of radio waves is transmitted and partially reflected back to the antenna is known as a(n):

274. The intrusion detection system that is used on safes, walls, and openings in an effort to establish an electrostatic field around an object to be protected is known as a(n):

275. An alarm system in which the installation-owned system is a direct extension of the police or fire alarm system is known as a(n):

276. An alarm system that is monitored by an outside company to provide electric protective services in which they provide the appropriate actions is known as a(n):

277. An alarm system whereby the central station is owned by and located within the installation being protected is known as a(n):

278. The principle of the pin-tumbler lock can be traced back historically to:

279. Which of the following is not true with regard to lock and key systems?

280. Of the following locks, which one type is generally considered to have the poorest security value?

281. The number of combinations possible with a lock that has 40 numbers and a 3-number combination is:

282. Which lock is generally used on automobiles, desks, and cabinets?

283. Which of the following is not true with regard to door latches?

284. An inventory of key systems should be conducted at least:

285. A sentry dog normally does not perform as well at:

286. Which of the following is more of a probable disadvantage in the use of sentry dogs?

287. In meeting federal specifications, insulated units must have the following fire-resistant minimum ratings:

288. In meeting minimal federal specifications, noninsulated security containers must satisfactorily pass a drop test of:

289. In meeting minimal federal specifications, government security containers must be equipped with a combination lock capable of resisting manipulation and radiological attack for:

290. Which of the following is not an approved UL safe classification?

291. Underwriters Laboratories does independent testing on security containers that simulate a major fire where the heat builds up gradually to:

292. The acceptable vault construction of insulated doors has a minimum reinforced concrete wall, floor, and ceiling of:

293. Which of the following would be a UL computer media storage classification?

294. Safes that are UL classified must be anchored to the floor or must weigh at least:

295. Which of the following is not generally true regarding money safes?

296. A "re-lock" on a vault door will automatically prevent the bolt mechanism from operating when:

297. Money safes are classified by both Underwriters Laboratories and:

298. Security vaults differ from safes in that:

299. Most theft is committed by:

300. An experienced safecracker will ordinarily use which of the following methods?

301. Which of the following methods has not been used in recent year to crack open record and money safes?

302. The weakness of the burning bar as a burglar tool is that:

303. A 50 percent insurance discount is generally allowed to protect a safe if:

304. Which of the following is not correct with regard to safes?

305. The UL symbol "TRTL" indicates:

306. Vaults are designed to meet most fire protection standards that are specified by the:

307. Fire-resistant safes must pass which of the following tests?

308. Which of the following methods of attacking newer-model safes is considered to be impractical?

309. The temperature that paper may be destroyed at is:

310. Electronic data and material can begin to deteriorate at:

311. The maximum safe period of fire-resistant vaults is:

312. The interior height of a vault should not exceed:

313. The roof of a vault should be at least:

314. The control of traffic through entrances and exits of a protected area is referred to as:

315. A system whereby the alarm signal is heard only in the immediate vicinity of the protected area is known as a:

316. A system using inaudible sound waves to detect the presence of an intruder or other disturbance is known as a(n):

317. Which one of the following is true regarding structural barriers?

318. Which of the following is not true regarding the use of security doors as barriers?

319. The weakest area in a window is usually:

320. Which of the following is considered to be the most resistant to a blast explosion?

321. Two sheets of ordinary glass bonded to an intervening layer of plastic material that is used in street-level windows and displays that need extra security is known as:

322. Bullet-resistant glass is made of:

323. What type of glass would be better for a storefront in terms of resistance to breakage, resistance to heat or extreme cold. and resistance to overall deterioration?

324. The type of glass that is often used for both safety and security purposes because it is three to five times stronger than regular glass and five times as resistant to heat is:

325. The most widely used security device is:

326. Which of the following locks has been in use the longest and has no security value?

327. The lock that is mostly used today for cabinets, lockers, and safe deposit boxes is:

328. The most widely used lock in the United States today for exterior building doors and interior room doors is:

329. The best-known performance standard for guidance on the criteria of effective locking systems is published by:

330. UL standards for the resistance to picking to align tumblers should be at least:

331. The sensor that is used when air turbulence is present in the room being protected and when there are no potential false alarm sources outside the room and in the field of the detector is a (n):

332. The sensor that is used when light air turbulence, vibration, or motion is present outside the room is a(n):

333. Foil used as a detector on a glass window to signal a surreptitious or forcible entry is an example of a(n):

334. The type of sensor that is designed to place a current-carrying conductor between an intruder and an area to be protected is known as a(n):

335. Which of the following does not pertain to the foil-type sensor?

336. The kind of sensor that is based on the Doppler principle, named after the Austrian scientist who originated the concept, is a(n):

337. The sound wave sensor is commonly referred to as a(n):

338. The type of sensor that is not influenced by exterior noise, reacts only to movement within a protected area, and can also be adjusted to the movement of air caused by a fire to activate the alarm is known as a(n):

339. An alarm system that uses a sound- or light-generating device, such as a bell or strobe lights, located on the exterior wall of the protective area to call attention to a violation is known as a(n):

340. An alarm system that is monitored by security personnel under the control of the owner of the establishment being protected is known as a(n):

341. A specially constructed microphone attached directly to an object or surface to be protected and that responds only when the protected object or surfaced is disturbed is known as a:

342. A visual indicator that displays several zones or buildings in which an alarm signal has originated from is called a(n):

343. Which of the following is true regarding CCTV?

344. The most critical component of all security processes is:

345. A comprehensive personnel security program should include:

346. The standard of employment of military and government personnel was established by which executive order?

347. The real meaning of the governmental policy in personnel security is:

348. When an individual is eligible to have access to classified information, this is called:

349. Which of the following security clearances is not used by the government?

350. What agency is responsible for processing requests for security clearances?

351. Individuals who are not U.S. citizens, or are immigrants, are not eligible for security clearances except under reciprocal clearance involving:

352. Which is a type of personnel security investigation?

353. An investigation that consists of checking the records of appropriate federal agencies for information bearing on the loyalty and suitability of a person under investigation is known as a(n):

354. A National Agency Check consists of:

355. A background investigation for a security clearance consists of:

356. During a security clearance background investigation, verification of naturalization will primarily be done by:

357. The Act passed to require that consumer reporting agencies adopt reasonable procedures for meeting the needs of commerce for consumer credit is commonly known as:

358. During a security clearance background investigation, when travel outside the United States is detected, which of the following should be checked?

359. The attitude or state of mind through which individuals are conscious of the existence of the security program and are persuaded that it is relevant to their own behavior is a concept known as:

360. The theory that the human organism is motivated by an ascending series of needs and that once the lower needs have been satisfied they will be supplanted by the higher needs as motives for behavior is known as:

361. Security awareness is motivated by what technique?

362. Which of the following is not an example of an intelligence test?

363. An example of an honesty test given by firms to determine dishonest employees is:

364. A personality test that uses the MMPI evaluation and states it is specially designed for police and security applicants is:

365. The main hurdle to overcome for personality tests is the requirement of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 that such a test not be discriminatory against protected minorities.

This rule used as a test is known as the:

366. According to a 1979 survey by the American Society for Industrial Security, the number of organizations in the United States offering security courses is greater than:

367. What are the advantages of having an outside organization perform background screening on your employees?

368. Background investigations of an applicant should:

369. Which of the following is not a requirement for handling preemployment interviews?

370. The quality of service rendered by security personnel is determined by which of the following?

371. A Burns Security Survey covering 847 banks found that the most important single step toward improved crime prevention was:

372. The basic principle of personnel security is:

373. Of the following questions, what cannot be asked of an applicant because of federal laws?

374. Inquiring about an applicant's age and date of birth on a preemployment form may be prohibited by:

375. Which of the following may be a clue on the employment form for considering refusal to hire?

376. Which of the following should not be a policy in considering applicants for hire?

377. Dishonest employees cost employers as much as all the nations' burglaries, car thefts, and bank holdups combined.

378. According to estimates, about one third of all business failures are caused by:

379. Store inventory shortages are mainly caused by:

380. The single most important safeguard for preventing internal theft is probably:

381. An employer may reject an applicant on the basis of:

382. An employer may not question an applicant about:

383. A study by scientists at Yale University (1939) found that theft resulted from:

384. Scientists at Yale University (1939) concluded that frustration almost always results in some aggressive reaction, the most important point being:

385. The theft triangle consists of the following components:

386. Of those acquitted or dismissed by the courts for theft, over ____ percent were rearrested within 30 months.

387. Individuals who find integrity tests offensive are:

388. A psychopath can often pass a polygraph test with a clean record because of the following characteristic:

389. Many experts agree that the most important deterrent to internal theft is:

390. An employee should be questioned:

391. Frustration and aggression may be caused by:

392. An impelling type of leadership tends to reduce employee dishonesty because:

393. Stores that rely on stapling packages shut with the register tape folded over the top of the bag do this:

394. Which of the following should the manager or supervisor immediately approve by signature:

395. Overrings should not be corrected by undercharging on other items because this:

396. The most effective deterrent to shoplifting is:

397. Employee complaints often arise from:

398. Directional counseling of upset employees:


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